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Bunuel
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well I have been preparing for only a month now so am probably not the best person to answer this. Going by the problems I have found on this forum it was slightly on the tougher side.

But then again wont do anyone any harm to remember one simple rule :)
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Very very good question :)
U should give more time for the others :-D
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Bunuel
Let's try one more.

If n is an integer >1, is 3^n-2^n divisible by 35?

(1) n is divisible by 15.
(2) n is divisible by 18.

How you like this one?

Explanation to follow.

we need to split 35
35 = 27 + 8

(1) 3^15n-2^15n = (3^3)^5n - (2^3)^5n = 27^5n - 8^5n

considering n to be 1 (odd) we get that 27^5 ends with a 7, and 8^5 ends with an 8. so the last digit will be 9 .

35 cant divide a number ending with 9 :)

consider n to be even now, say 2 i.e. 27^10 - 8^10 .

now we will need some corollaries we get from the binomail theorem. if we have a number as a^n - b^n

then if n is odd , the number is divisible by a - b
if n is even, the number is divisible by a + b

so this makes 27^10-8^10 divisible by 27 + 8 = 35.

thus an even value of n will make the term 3^15n - 2^15n divisible by 35, while an odd value will not be divisble

So 1 is insufficient.

By using the above mentioned rule we can infer that 3^18n-2^18n (27^6n - 8 ^6n) will always be divisible by 35 as the index will always be even.

So 2 is sufficient .

So B.

+1 for both of you for 750+ level question and solution...
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Thanks GMAT TIGER, but frankly speaking when I was composing this question I didn't think that it would be ranked as 750+.

Is it because the rule needed to deal with this problem is not widely known?
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Thanks GMAT TIGER, but frankly speaking when I was composing this question I didn't think that it would be ranked as 750+.

Is it because the rule needed to deal with this problem is not widely known?

The question is perfect. It looks tough but solution is simple if you persue the right approach. Thats the characterstics of 750+ question, which are not essentially hard/difficult.....
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Great question! I hope you can add more of these! I've seen a few of these questions but at lower level of difficulty. Usually the divisor is a factor of (a-b) or (a + b) where a, b are the base. So, it is easier to relate. Having 35 as divisor stumped me as I couldn't relate it to 3 and 2. I noticed that there are not a lot of discussion about this type of question either on the net or in the gmat book. So, I'm really glad to find it! Hope to see more!!!!Kudos for all your efforts. Cant tell you how much it helps..since I dont have access to any gmat books.
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its a indeed a great quality question.
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[
RULE: for x^n-y^n:
\(x^n-y^n\) is ALWAYS divisible by \(x-y\).
\(x^n-y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\) when n is even.



What is the reasoning behind these rules? (understanding makes it easier to remember)
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Fijisurf
Bunuel
[
RULE: for x^n-y^n:
\(x^n-y^n\) is ALWAYS divisible by \(x-y\).
\(x^n-y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\) when n is even.



What is the reasoning behind these rules? (understanding makes it easier to remember)

I really doubt you need this.

RULE: for \(x^n-y^n\):
\(x^n-y^n=(x-y)(x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2+x^{n-4}y^3+...+xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})\)

So, \(x^n-y^n\) is always divisible by \(x-y\).

Now, when \(n=even\), then the second multiple will have n, so even terms and
\((x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2+x^{n-4}y^3+...+xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})=\)
\(=(x^{n-2}(x+y)+x^{n-4}y^2(x+y)+...+y^{n-2}(x+y))=(x+y)(x^{n-2}+x^{n-4}y^2+...+y^{n-2})\)
So, \(x^n-y^n\) is also divisible by \(x+y\) when \(n\) is even.

Consider the following examples:
\(x^2-y^2=(x-y)(x+y)\): divisible by both \(x-y\) and \(x+y\);
\(x^3-y^3=(x-y)(x^2+xy+y^2)\): divisible by \(x-y\).

RULE: for \(x^n+y^n\):

When \(n=odd\) then:
\(x^n+y^n=(x+y)(x^{n-1}-x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2-x^{n-4}y^3+...-xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})\)
So, when \(n=odd\) then \(x^n+y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\).

When \(n=even\) then \(x^n+y^n\) is NOT divisible by either \(x+y\) or \(x-y\).

Consider the following example:
\(x^3+y^3=(x+y)(x^2-xy+y^2)\): divisible by \(x+y\).
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Thanks!
I hope this does not appear on GMAT too often.
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muralimba

Bunuel, Not to find out the mistake, but please correct the above typo. Shudn't that be \(x^3+y^3\)

Thanks. Corrected the typo.
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hmmm. this is the kind of questions which make the prep interesting for anyone.
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Bumping for review and further discussion*. Get a kudos point for an alternative solution!

*New project from GMAT Club!!! Check HERE

To find DS questions by Kudos, sort by Kudos here: gmat-data-sufficiency-ds-141/
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Fijisurf
Bunuel
[
RULE: for x^n-y^n:
\(x^n-y^n\) is ALWAYS divisible by \(x-y\).
\(x^n-y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\) when n is even.



What is the reasoning behind these rules? (understanding makes it easier to remember)

Bunuel
If n is an integer >1, is 3^n-2^n divisible by 35?

(1) n is divisible by 15.
(2) n is divisible by 18.

Explanation to follow.

I just wanted to show another method to prove the above. Perfect solution is already given by everyone.
+1 for the sum.
For any function f(x), if x=a makes f(a)=0, then (x-a) is a factor of the given function.

This is something we all know. It has just been put in words by me.To illustrate that, consider the given example :

f(x) =\(x^2-2x+1\) ; for x=1, f(1) = 0. Thus, (x-1) is a factor of f(x),and as everyone would have recognised,we all know f(x) = \((x-1)^2\).

I.Function of the form f(x) = \(x^n+y^n\) will have (x+y) as a factor, if and only if for x=-y, f(-y) = 0.
Thus, replacing the value of x in the above function, we get : \((-y)^n+y^n \to\) Notice that this will be zero , only if n is odd.
\(x^n+y^n\) will always have (x+y) as a factor, if n = odd.

II. Function of the form f(x) = \(x^n-y^n\). Just as above, for (x+y) to be a factor, for x = -y,f(-y) = 0

Again, by replacing f(-y) = \((-y)^n-y^n \to\) This will be zero only if n is even.

\(x^n-y^n\) will always have (x+y) as a factor, if n = even.

Again, for (x-y) to be a factor, for x = y, f(y) = 0.

f(y) = \(y^n-y^n\) = 0.

\(x^n-y^n\) will always have (x-y) as a factor, if n = odd/even.
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very good question... thanks...
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Bunuel
Fijisurf
Bunuel
[
RULE: for x^n-y^n:
\(x^n-y^n\) is ALWAYS divisible by \(x-y\).
\(x^n-y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\) when n is even.



What is the reasoning behind these rules? (understanding makes it easier to remember)

I really doubt you need this.

RULE: for \(x^n-y^n\):
\(x^n-y^n=(x-y)(x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2+x^{n-4}y^3+...+xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})\)

So, \(x^n-y^n\) is always divisible by \(x-y\).

Now, when \(n=even\), then the second multiple will have n, so even terms and
\((x^{n-1}+x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2+x^{n-4}y^3+...+xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})=\)
\(=(x^{n-2}(x+y)+x^{n-4}y^2(x+y)+...+y^{n-2}(x+y))=(x+y)(x^{n-2}+x^{n-4}y^2+...+y^{n-2})\)
So, \(x^n-y^n\) is also divisible by \(x-y\) when \(n\) is even.

Consider the following examples:
\(x^2-y^2=(x-y)(x+y)\): divisible by both \(x-y\) and \(x+y\);
\(x^3-y^3=(x-y)(x^2+xy+y^2)\): divisible by \(x-y\).

RULE: for \(x^n+y^n\):

When \(n=odd\) then:
\(x^n+y^n=(x+y)(x^{n-1}-x^{n-2}y+x^{n-3}y^2-x^{n-4}y^3+...-xy^{n-2}+y^{n-1})\)
So, when \(n=odd\) then \(x^n+y^n\) is divisible by \(x+y\).

When \(n=even\) then \(x^n+y^n\) is NOT divisible by either \(x+y\) or \(x-y\).

Consider the following example:
\(x^3+y^3=(x+y)(x^2-xy+y^2)\): divisible by \(x+y\).


Good rules to remember but I think there is a typo above ,When you are explaining the logic for even case I think you meant to write
So, \(x^n-y^n\) is also divisible by \(x+y\) when \(n\) is even and not \(x-y\).

Good rules to keep in mind.
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stne
Good rules to remember but I think there is a typo above ,When you are explaining the logic for even case I think you meant to write
So, \(x^n-y^n\) is also divisible by \(x+y\) when \(n\) is even and not \(x-y\).

Good rules to keep in mind.

Thank you. Edited. +1.
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