Have to agree with Raghaw's explanation above

For 1, There is a positive correlation between the interest rates and the percentage of zero interest loans, so knowing that mean interest rate is greater than 45%, eliminates data points where percentage of zero-interest loans are lower, and thereby increasing the probability that the loan is a zero interest loan.

Nothing can be deduced about 2 from the given tab.

3, No, that leaves just one data point on the graph, and thus the probability which has the least percentage, this would actually decrease the probability

What are the Official answers?

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