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Hey,

Question 2, Sub Question 1 :: 'Across Europe and in the US in the 1970s and 1980s, the increase in the number of middle-income occupations was greater than the increase in number of lower-income occupations.' - is stating this to be incorrect.
Whereas the opening statement of the passage says 'In the 1970s and 1980s, employment in middle-income occupations—payroll processing and accountancy, for example—grew faster across Europe and the United States than employment in lower-income jobs.'

:)­
­I was confused as well at the beginning. But I think the question wants us the distinguish the difference between growth rate and growth number. "grew faster" means the growth rate is faster instead of the number. For example, there is 1 middle-income job, and 10,000 lower-income jobs in the 1970s. 2 middle-income jobs, and 10,003 lower-income jobs in the 1980s. The growth rate of middle-income jobs is higher than lower-income jobs, but the number of middle-income jobs is increasing less than lower-income jobs.
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­The grammatical comparison in question A, according to my understanding, is as follows:
In the 1970's and 1980's employment in X grew faster than employment in Y. 
X = middle income jobs
Y = lower income jobs

Although, SC is not part of GMATfocus, it is being tested here and I fail to see how the comparison does not directly compare middle income and lower income jobs. 

Please clarify.

chetan2u
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­The grammatical comparison in question A, according to my understanding, is as follows:
In the 1970's and 1980's employment in X grew faster than employment in Y. 
X = middle income jobs
Y = lower income jobs

Although, SC is not part of GMATfocus, it is being tested here and I fail to see how the comparison does not directly compare middle income and lower income jobs. 

Please clarify.

chetan2u
KarishmaB

Hi

You are fine with your understanding but you are missing out on the point that what is given in para is faster rate and what is being spoken in the option is number.
Faster rate May not result of in more number for example 2% of 100 will be less than 1% of 500.

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KarishmaB

Please help me with the second question. Also please explain the graph.
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chetan2u
KarishmaB

Please help me with the second question. Also please explain the graph.
I will explain the graph. Try the second question based on that understanding. If a query still exists, pl ask.

Now, we are looking at total work hours.
Netherl­ands: In 1996, if the percentage of the work hours by low-income workers, medium income workers and high income workers are l, m and h, then in 2003, the shares became l+2.5, m-5 and h+2.5, that is 5% drop in m was compensated by increase in l and h.

Similarly for other countries too, there was a drop in work hours by middle-income occupations and simulatenous increase in other two.­
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Question 3:

l. In some of the countries in the European Union not shown in the chart, the increase in income polarization has been less than it has been in the Netherlands.

We cannot infer anything from any other country in the EU not shown in the graph, hence NO.

ll. During the time under consideration, Japan was roughly equal to the EU average in the extent to which job polarization increased.

Same as above, cannot be inferred. There is no data for Japan, hence NO.

lll. Industries that have adopted IT at faster rates have tended to show greater growth in employment of IT professionals than in employment of other highly educated workers.

Match well with third tab: "Across the board, they found that industries that adopted IT at faster rates (as measured by their IT spending as well as their spending on research and development) saw faster growth in demand for highly educated workers and the sharpest declines in demand for people with intermediate levels of education."

However, passage mentions growth in demand, not growth in employment, i.e. cannot be inferred, hence NO.
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Q2. how do you imply that the increase in the number of middle-income occupations in Germany was greater in 1993 than 2006? I'm still a bit confused about the graph... thanks
chetan2u
Q.1. The support provided in the given information for the claim that a significant amount of employment polarization is due to IT would be most weakened by adding which of the following assumptions?
Across the board, they found that industries that adopted IT at faster rates (as measured by their IT spending as well as their spending on research and development) saw faster growth in demand for highly educated workers and the sharpest declines in demand for people with intermediate levels of education. This suggested to the researchers a pronounced association between IT and employment polarization.


The support that has been given for increase in employment polarization and IT is given by the bold italics above, that is more IT spending and more R & D spending.
We have to find an option that weakens the above.

Option C - Commuting zones wherein business and industry spend the most on IT and research and development tend to have the least amount of employment polarization. - does exactly the same thing.
It says the opposite of what was used to support IT increasing employment polarization.

Q.2.
Across Europe and in the US in the 1970s and 1980s, the increase in the number of middle-income occupations was greater than the increase in number of lower-income occupations.
A Trap: The first few lines say that ' In the 1970s and 1980s, employment in middle-income occupations grew faster across Europe and the United States than employment in lower-income jobs.' If you look at the comparison, it is rate while the option compares the number.
Thus, NOT supported

In Germany, the hours worked in middle-income jobs, as a percentage of total hours worked, was greater in 1993 than in 2006.
This can be read directly from the graph given. Supported

Some industries that have adopted IT now employ fewer highly educated workers NOT trained in IT than they previously did.
There is no discussion on the highly educated workers other than IT. NOT supported

mustafa87 and Shwarma­
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Question 2: if the statement is strongly supported by the given information, Yes. Else, No.

S1: Across Europe and in the US in the 1970s and 1980s, the increase in the number of middle-income occupations was greater than the increase in number of lower-income occupations.

We only know that middle income occupations "grew faster" i.e., their growth rate was more. This does not really mean that the actual number of jobs increased by more.

For instance -> Say

Lower income jobs -> increased from 1000 to 1200. 20% growth rate. +200 increase in #jobs.
Middle income jobs -> increased from 100 to 150. 50% growth rate. Only +50 increase in #jobs.


So, while it is true that middle-income occupations grew faster, there is no basis to say that the absolute increase in number of middle-income jobs was more than the increase in number of lower-income jobs.


So, NO.

S2: In Germany, the hours worked in middle-income jobs, as a percentage of total hours worked, was greater in 1993 than in 2006.

Check the graph in tab 1. This statement is clearly true. The hours worked in middle income jobs as a percentage of total hours worked - we can see that this reduced by around 8% for Germany from 1993 to 2006. Hence, this was clearly greater in 1993 than in 2006.

So, YES.

S3: Some industries that have adopted IT now employ fewer highly educated workers NOT trained in IT than they previously did.

We do not have any basis for this statement. The passage does not specify anything about how highly educated workers not trained in IT are impacted by the IT adoption.

So, NO.


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I could not understand the graph. Can someone help? I am not getting year by year data from 1996 to 2003? Thanks.
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I could not understand the graph. Can someone help? I am not getting year by year data from 1996 to 2003? Thanks.


The graph shows what it looked like in Year 2006 compared with Year 1993.
For Germany, it can be interpreted that if Middle-income in 1993 = 100, then Middle-income in 2006 = 100-8 = 92.

Making Q2 sub 2 : In Germany, the hours worked in middle-income jobs, as a percentage of total hours worked, was greater in 1993 than in 2006.
-> "Yes".
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Sharing one more question from this stem

Attachment:
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GMAT-Club-Forum-vryg5d9w.png [ 311.04 KiB | Viewed 4387 times ]
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Sharing one more question from this stem

Attachment:
GMAT-Club-Forum-vryg5d9w.png

Isn't it the very first question in the original post?
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Dear expert, requesting feedback on Q3 Statement 1.

Can we draw some conclusion basis the fact that in Europe the length of bar for few of the countries as shown in the table - for eg. france and italy is more than average thus average will reduce and thus draw inference on Netherlands?
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Hi Rickooreo,

I can see the move you're trying to make: use the bar lengths of some listed countries to work out an "EU average," then use that average to say something about the countries that aren't shown, and finally line that up against the Netherlands. It's a clever chain, but it breaks at the very first link.

The heart of Statement 1: it makes a claim about countries in the EU that are not shown in the chart - "in some of the countries... not shown in the chart, the increase in income polarization has been less than it has been in the Netherlands." To support that, you need some information about those unshown countries. The chart gives you exactly zero.

Here's the catch with the averaging idea: an average built from the countries you can see tells you nothing about a country you can't see. Even if France and Italy sat above some average, that's a fact about shown countries - it says nothing about the specific unshown countries the statement is talking about. You can never pin down an individual value that was never in your data set just by looking at other values.

So there's no chain across the tabs that forces this statement to be true. Remember, "inferable" means it must be true - not that it could be. Since the chart is silent on the unshown countries, the answer is No.

A tiny stand-in to feel it:
- Fact: A chart lists the test scores of 4 students in a class and you compute their average.
- Question: Can you conclude that a 5th student - not on the chart at all - scored below that average?

Of course not. You have no data on the 5th student, so any comparison is pure guessing. Statement 1 asks you to do exactly that, which is why it can't be inferred.

Answer: No, No, No

Rickooreo
Dear expert, requesting feedback on Q3 Statement 1.

Can we draw some conclusion basis the fact that in Europe the length of bar for few of the countries as shown in the table - for eg. france and italy is more than average thus average will reduce and thus draw inference on Netherlands?
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