Last visit was: 24 Jul 2024, 04:27 It is currently 24 Jul 2024, 04:27
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Date
Tags:
Show Tags
Hide Tags
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 94605
Own Kudos [?]: 643483 [7]
Given Kudos: 86734
Send PM
GMAT Tutor
Joined: 24 Jun 2008
Posts: 4127
Own Kudos [?]: 9465 [1]
Given Kudos: 91
 Q51  V47
Send PM
SVP
SVP
Joined: 24 Nov 2016
Posts: 1712
Own Kudos [?]: 1360 [0]
Given Kudos: 607
Location: United States
Send PM
BSchool Moderator
Joined: 08 Dec 2013
Posts: 685
Own Kudos [?]: 523 [0]
Given Kudos: 227
Location: India
Concentration: Nonprofit, Sustainability
Schools: ISB '23
GMAT 1: 630 Q47 V30
WE:Operations (Non-Profit and Government)
Send PM
Re: Is pq > 0? (1) (2q)^p = 1 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
Is \(pq > 0\)?

(1) \((2q)^p = 1\)

(2) \(p < 0\)


Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions


Let's start with easy-

#2. p is <0 but q can be anything </>/= zero. Insufficient
#1. p can be 0 and at the same time p can be 1 so Insufficient.

1+2.

p has to be a -ve value say -1,-2,-1.5 etc.
Inside the braces q can be +ve as well as -ve. Put q= 1/2 and (-1/2) to check. So overall #1+2 is also Insufficient.

E
Stern School Moderator
Joined: 26 May 2020
Status:Spirited
Posts: 632
Own Kudos [?]: 541 [0]
Given Kudos: 219
Concentration: General Management, Technology
WE:Analyst (Computer Software)
Send PM
Re: Is pq > 0? (1) (2q)^p = 1 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
Is \(pq > 0\)?

(1) \((2q)^p = 1\)

(2) \(p < 0\)


Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions



1) (2q)^p=1
P could be 0 ---- pq =0 OR q could be 0.5 and p can be anything . so Insufficient..


(2) p<0 ... q can be 0.5 or -0.5 .. accordingly value can change .. So insufficient

Combining (1&2)

p<0≠0: q=0.5…p=-2…2(0.5)^(-2)=1…pq=-1
p<0≠0: q=-0.5…p=-2…2(-0.5)^(-2)=(-1)^2=1/(-1)^2=1…pq=1

still insufficient
Hence
Ans (E)
RC & DI Moderator
Joined: 02 Aug 2009
Status:Math and DI Expert
Posts: 11485
Own Kudos [?]: 34577 [1]
Given Kudos: 325
Send PM
Re: Is pq > 0? (1) (2q)^p = 1 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
Bunuel wrote:
Is \(pq > 0\)?

(1) \((2q)^p = 1\)

(2) \(p < 0\)


Are You Up For the Challenge: 700 Level Questions


pq>0 basically means both p and q have same sign.

(1) \((2q)^p = 1\)
If p=0, q could be anything...so pq=0, that is answer is NO
If \(p=1\), and \(q=\frac{1}{2}\).....\(pq=2*\frac{1}{2}=1>0\), that is answer is YES
Insuff

(2) \(p < 0\)
Nothing about q
Insuff

Combined
If \(p=-1, \)and \(q=\frac{1}{2}....(2*\frac{1}{2})^{-1}=1 and p*q=-1*\frac{1}{2}=-\frac{1}{2}\).......answer is NO
If \(p=-2\), and \(q=-\frac{1}{2}....(2*-\frac{1}{2})^{-2}=(-1)^{-2}=\frac{1}{(-1)^2}=1\) and \(pq=-2*-\frac{1}{2}=1>0\)...answer is Yes
Insuff
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Posts: 34061
Own Kudos [?]: 853 [0]
Given Kudos: 0
Send PM
Re: Is pq > 0? (1) (2q)^p = 1 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
GMAT Club Bot
Re: Is pq > 0? (1) (2q)^p = 1 (2) p < 0 [#permalink]
Moderator:
Math Expert
94605 posts