gauravsaggis1
@mikemcgarry,Thanks for reply but, my question still remains the same. with which part will 4 be multiplied?
I have multiplied it with B whereas you have multiplied it with F. This is the part where I am confused.
Thanks in Advance.
Dear
gauravsaggis1,
I'm happy to respond.
I'm going to recommend this blog
Intro to GMAT Word Problems, Part 1: Translating from Word to MathThe basic idea that is that the "
to be" verb, "
is" or "
are," is the mathematical equivalent of the equal sign. Thus
X is four times Ymeans X = 4Y.
Now what's tricky about this problem is that it uses a more sophisticated grammatical construction similar to an
appositive phrase. This is another grammatical way to show that two things are the same:
Julius Caesar, the great Roman general, conquered Gaul.
Among other things, we are saying that
Julius Caesar WAS a great Roman general. This is a grammatical way to show "
is" without writing "
is." Thus, this is an alternate way to indicate the presence of the equal sign.
If the problem says
X is an important number, four times greater than Y, .... that's a true appositive phrase. Grammatically, we are saying
X is an important number AND X IS four times greater than Y ....
and this means mathematically that X = 4Y.
Now, look at that sentence in the problem:
Among the students who speak French, four times as many speak German as don't. This is an extremely compact and elegant phrasing, typically of the fine question craftsmanship of
MGMAT. The construction is in some ways analogous to an appositive phrase. Let's write a much more sloppy expanded version of this same sentence.
Looking at all the students who speak French, the French speakers who speak German are four time as many as those who don't speak German. Now, look where the "
are" is in the sentence: that's the equal sign. Thus
(French speakers who speak German) = 4*(French speakers who don't speak German) You always have to find the implicit "
is" --- that's where the equal sign goes.
Does all this make sense?
Mike