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Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha

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Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Mar 2017, 05:13
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A
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  55% (hard)

Question Stats:

57% (01:26) correct 43% (01:19) wrong based on 235 sessions

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McGraw Hill GMAT

Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases than do single professionals with comparable incomes because some of the income used for housing and entertainment costs by single professionals can be used by married professionals for other purchases.

Which of the following inferences is best supported by the statement made above?

A. Married professionals spend more money on discretionary purchases than do single professionals.
B. Married professionals have smaller housing and entertainment costs than do single professionals.
C. Couples that live together but are not married have more money to spend on discretionary purchases than do single professionals.
D. The median income for married professionals is higher than that of single professionals.
E. Housing and entertainment costs account for the largest proportion of a single professional’s expenditures.

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Re: Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Mar 2017, 04:17
confused btw B&E ,can someone explain why we should not go with E although it looks peachy but still unable to eliminate it , please shed your light on it
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Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 08 Mar 2017, 06:07
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nks2611 wrote:
confused btw B&E ,can someone explain why we should not go with E although it looks peachy but still unable to eliminate it , please shed your light on it


Break the argument down -

some of the income used for housing and entertainment costs by single professionals can be used by married professionals for other purchases. --> Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases


What does this imply? Probably that they do not incur as much housing and entertainment costs. (why else will they have this advantage?)

We have to look for an answer that suggests this. Option B does this perfectly.

Option E - Incorrect.
"Housing and entertainment costs account for the largest proportion of a single professional’s expenditures." - Even if it does not account for the largest proportion (let's say it does not account for 60%, but only 30%), married professionals still do have more money to spend on discretionary purchases.

Hence, it is not required for those costs to be the "largest" proportion of expenditures.

Option A - Incorrect.
"Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases" - does not mean that they WILL spend more money on those purchases.

Option C - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about this group - "Couples that live together but are not married".

Option D - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about "incomes".
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Originally posted by CrackVerbalGMAT on 06 Mar 2017, 16:36.
Last edited by CrackVerbalGMAT on 08 Mar 2017, 06:07, edited 1 time in total.
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Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Mar 2017, 05:48
CrackVerbalGMAT wrote:
nks2611 wrote:
confused btw B&E ,can someone explain why we should not go with E although it looks peachy but still unable to eliminate it , please shed your light on it


Break the argument down -

some of the income used for housing and entertainment costs by single professionals can be used by married professionals for other purchases. --> Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases


What does this imply? Probably that they do not incur housing and entertainment costs. (why else will they have this advantage?)

We have to look for an answer that suggests this. Option B does this perfectly.

Option E - Incorrect.
"Housing and entertainment costs account for the largest proportion of a single professional’s expenditures." - Even if it does not account for the largest proportion (let's say it does not account for 60%, but only 30%), married professionals still do have more money to spend on discretionary purchases.

Hence, it is not required for those costs to be the "largest" proportion of expenditures.

Option A - Incorrect.
"Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases" - does not mean that they WILL spend more money on those purchases.

Option C - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about this group - "Couples that live together but are not married".

Option D - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about "incomes".


I have a problem with this question ! How can we infer that the housing costs are less than what singles incur. Perhaps it could be same. And they could have more money to spare because both the partners are earning .
The only thing we can infer is that two people living together will have lesser costs .

Please clarify this.
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Re: Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Mar 2017, 06:06
Top Contributor
goforgmat wrote:

I have a problem with this question ! How can we infer that the housing costs are less than what singles incur. Perhaps it could be same. And they could have more money to spare because both the partners are earning .
The only thing we can infer is that two people living together will have lesser costs .

Please clarify this.


It talks about those with "comparable income", that's why
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Re: Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purcha  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Mar 2017, 03:29
goforgmat wrote:
CrackVerbalGMAT wrote:
nks2611 wrote:
confused btw B&E ,can someone explain why we should not go with E although it looks peachy but still unable to eliminate it , please shed your light on it


Break the argument down -

some of the income used for housing and entertainment costs by single professionals can be used by married professionals for other purchases. --> Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases


What does this imply? Probably that they do not incur housing and entertainment costs. (why else will they have this advantage?)

We have to look for an answer that suggests this. Option B does this perfectly.

Option E - Incorrect.
"Housing and entertainment costs account for the largest proportion of a single professional’s expenditures." - Even if it does not account for the largest proportion (let's say it does not account for 60%, but only 30%), married professionals still do have more money to spend on discretionary purchases.

Hence, it is not required for those costs to be the "largest" proportion of expenditures.

Option A - Incorrect.
"Married professionals have more money to spend on discretionary purchases" - does not mean that they WILL spend more money on those purchases.

Option C - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about this group - "Couples that live together but are not married".

Option D - Incorrect.
We cannot infer anything about "incomes".


I have a problem with this question ! How can we infer that the housing costs are less than what singles incur. Perhaps it could be same. And they could have more money to spare because both the partners are earning .
The only thing we can infer is that two people living together will have lesser costs .

Please clarify this.


This is how I understand it:

Married professionals spend more money on discretionary purposes than single ones.
Both groups have comparable incomes.
Single professional's share of cost on 'housing and entertainment' is used by Married group for discretionary purposes.

A. From question stem we only know that they have MORE money. Do they really spend more money? Is this option TRUE in all scenarios? - NO
C. Question stem doen't talk about couples but only about married professionals. Maybe both husband and wife live separately or maybe not. Is this option TRUE in all scenarios? - NO
D. Question stem clearly mentions that income is comparable. We don't have any other statistical data. Is this option TRUE in all scenarios? - NO
E. As per the argument Married professional can use the same share for discretionary purposes. Does it account for largest proportion for single professional's expenditures? Is this option TRUE in all scenarios? - NO

Hence B is the right choice.
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