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Hi VeritasKarishma

For the baseball problem under the "At (the very) Least You Should Know This About Probability" section how would you solve using the other three approaches?

"Whenever his favorite baseball team’s “closer” allows a hit, Sean becomes irate (just close out the game, Joe Nathan!). If the closer needs to get three outs to win the game, and each batter he will face has a .250 batting average (a 1/4 chance of getting a hit), what is the probability that he will give up at least one hit (assuming that there are no walks/errors/hit-batsmen)?"

1) Probability Approach?
2) Reversal Probability Approach - solved in passage
3) Combinatorial Approach?
4) Reversal Combinatorial Approach?

I understand the Reversal Probability Approach, as outlined in the passage, however I've tried solving, for instance, using the Probability Approach: What am I missing?

Three ways to get one or more hits (i.e. at least one hit)
HOO
HHO
HHH

HOO - 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64
HHO - 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64
HHH - 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/64
13/64 is not the right answer though

Based on the problem, if there is a hit, then do we need to consider three additional batters in order to get three outs? Order shouldn't matter here (i.e. HOO is the same as OHO as the same as OOH), so we're concerned with only combinations, not permutations?

Thank you for your help

https://gmatclub.com/forum/probability-made-easy-206011.html#p1577279
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Hi VeritasKarishma

For the baseball problem under the "At (the very) Least You Should Know This About Probability" section how would you solve using the other three approaches?

"Whenever his favorite baseball team’s “closer” allows a hit, Sean becomes irate (just close out the game, Joe Nathan!). If the closer needs to get three outs to win the game, and each batter he will face has a .250 batting average (a 1/4 chance of getting a hit), what is the probability that he will give up at least one hit (assuming that there are no walks/errors/hit-batsmen)?"

1) Probability Approach?
2) Reversal Probability Approach - solved in passage
3) Combinatorial Approach?
4) Reversal Combinatorial Approach?

I understand the Reversal Probability Approach, as outlined in the passage, however I've tried solving, for instance, using the Probability Approach: What am I missing?

Three ways to get one or more hits (i.e. at least one hit)
HOO
HHO
HHH

HOO - 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64
HHO - 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64
HHH - 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/64
13/64 is not the right answer though

Based on the problem, if there is a hit, then do we need to consider three additional batters in order to get three outs? Order shouldn't matter here (i.e. HOO is the same as OHO as the same as OOH), so we're concerned with only combinations, not permutations?

Thank you for your help

https://gmatclub.com/forum/probability-made-easy-206011.html#p1577279


You considered HOO but not OHO and OOH. How about HOH and OHH?

HOO - 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64 * 3 (For the 3 arrangements HOO, OHO, OOH)
HHO - 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64 * 3 (For the 3 arrangements HHO, HOH, OHH)
HHH - 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/64

Total = 37/64
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Quote:
if outcome A has a 25% chance of occurring in any one event, what is the probability that outcome A will happen at least once during three consecutive events?”

the answer is 1 - 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 37/64
[ i get this one but I'm trying to see if i can get probability, so I also tried the other way around]

getting at least one hit

1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 (one hit)
1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 (two hits )
1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 (three hits)

1/64 + 3/64 + 9/64 = 13/64

why it is wrong, would you please correct my logic?

Bunuel
Thanks, I'm pretty lost in probability
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Quote:
if outcome A has a 25% chance of occurring in any one event, what is the probability that outcome A will happen at least once during three consecutive events?”

the answer is 1 - 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 37/64
[ i get this one but I'm trying to see if i can get probability, so I also tried the other way around]

getting at least one hit

1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 (one hit)
1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 (two hits )
1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 (three hits)

1/64 + 3/64 + 9/64 = 13/64

why it is wrong, would you please correct my logic?

Bunuel
Thanks, I'm pretty lost in probability

The point is an event can occur once in three tries in different ways {Yes, No, No}, {No, Yes, No}, {No, No, Yes} (basically the number of permutations of three letters YNN, which is 3!/2! = 3). Similarly, for two occurrences we'd have {Yes, Yes, No}, {Yes, No, Yes}, {No, Yes, Yes}.

So, it should be 3*1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 + 3*1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 + 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 37/64.

You can check this post for more: https://gmatclub.com/forum/probability- ... l#p1577310
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Good review of probability questions
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Bunuel
Calculating the Probability of Intersecting Events
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP

We know our basic probability formulas (for two events), which are very similar to the formulas for sets:

P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B)

P(A) is the probability that event A will occur.

P(B) is the probability that event B will occur.

P(A or B) gives us the union; i.e. the probability that at least one of the two events will occur.

P(A and B) gives us the intersection; i.e. the probability that both events will occur.

Now, how do you find the value of P(A and B)? The value of P(A and B) depends on the relation between event A and event B. Let’s discuss three cases:

1) A and B are independent events

If A and B are independent events such as “the teacher will give math homework,” and “the temperature will exceed 30 degrees celsius,” the probability that both will occur is the product of their individual probabilities.

Say, P(A) = P(the teacher will give math homework) = 0.4

P(B) = P(the temperature will exceed 30 degrees celsius) = 0.3

P(A and B will occur) = 0.4 * 0.3 = 0.12

2) A and B are mutually exclusive events

If A and B are mutually exclusive events, this means they are events that cannot take place at the same time, such as “flipping a coin and getting heads” and “flipping a coin and getting tails.” You cannot get both heads and tails at the same time when you flip a coin. Similarly, “It will rain today” and “It will not rain today” are mutually exclusive events – only one of the two will happen.

In these cases, P(A and B will occur) = 0

3) A and B are related in some other way

Events A and B could be related but not in either of the two ways discussed above – “The stock market will rise by 100 points” and “Stock S will rise by 10 points” could be two related events, but are not independent or mutually exclusive. Here, the probability that both occur would need to be given to you. What we can find here is the range in which this probability must lie.

Maximum value of P(A and B):

The maximum value of P(A and B) is the lower of the two probabilities, P(A) and P(B).

Say P(A) = 0.4 and P(B) = 0.7

The maximum probability of intersection can be 0.4 because P(A) = 0.4. If probability of one event is 0.4, probability of both occurring can certainly not be more than 0.4.

Minimum value of P(A and B):

To find the minimum value of P(A and B), consider that any probability cannot exceed 1, so the maximum P(A or B) is 1.

Remember, P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A and B)

1 = 0.4 + 0.7 – P(A and B)

P(A and B) = 0.1 (at least)

Therefore, the actual value of P(A and B) will lie somewhere between 0.1 and 0.4 (both inclusive).

Now let’s take a look at a GMAT question using these fundamentals:

There is a 10% chance that Tigers will not win at all during the whole season. There is a 20% chance that Federer will not play at all in the whole season. What is the greatest possible probability that the Tigers will win and Federer will play during the season?
(A) 55%
(B) 60%
(C) 70%
(D) 72%
(E) 80%

Let’s review what we are given.

P(Tigers will not win at all) = 0.1

P(Tigers will win) = 1 – 0.1 = 0.9

P(Federer will not play at all) = 0.2

P(Federer will play) = 1 – 0.2 = 0.8

Do we know the relation between the two events “Tigers will win” (A) and “Federer will play” (B)? No. They are not mutually exclusive and we do not know whether they are independent.

If they are independent, then the P(A and B) = 0.9 * 0.8 = 0.72

If the relation between the two events is unknown, then the maximum value of P(A and B) will be 0.8 because P(B), the lesser of the two given probabilities, is 0.8.

Since 0.8, or 80%, is the greater value, the greatest possibility that the Tigers will win and Federer will play during the season is 80%. Therefore, our answer is E. This question is discussed HERE.

Hello, thanks for the Forum, one question related to independent events:
If in the Tigers-Federer problem we can not consider that the two events are independent, why in the Chile-Madagascar problem we consider the events are independent to calculate P(A y B) if the question does not say anything about it?

Regards
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Bunuel
Probability with Conditions Part II
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP


Question 2: Alex has five children. He has at least two girls (you do not know which two of her five children are girls). What is the probability that he has at least two boys too? (The probability of having a boy is 0.4 while the probability of having a girl is 0.6)

Solution:

We want to find this probability: P(‘At least 2 Boys and at least 2 Girls’ given ‘At least 2 Girls’) = P(At least 2 Boys and at least 2 Girls)/P(At least 2 Girls)


From the question I tought we need to find P('At least 2 Boys' given 'At least 2 Girls') = P(At least 2 Boys)/P(At least 2 Girls)

From the question how do I know that we need to find P(At least 2 Boys and at least 2 Girls)/P(At least 2 Girls) (I thought that the part of at least two girls are given and therefore we only need to devide by P(At least 2 Girls)
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Quote:
Question 2: There is a group of people consisting of 10 men and 6 women. Among these 16 people, there are 4 married couples (man-woman couples). If one man and one woman are selected at random, what is the probability that a married couple gets selected?

Solution 2:

P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

P(Married Couple is Selected) = (4/10)*(1/6) = 4/60

Hello Bunuel, can you please explain what is wrong in my method below?

Men = 10
Women = 6
Total = 16

4 couples = 8 married people

First, I write down the probability of selecting a married person. This probability is (8 married people/16 total people) = 1/2.

Second, I write down the probability of finding the spouse of the chosen married person. This probability is (1 spouse/15 remaining people) = 1/15.

Last, I multiply both values together to get the answer:

(1/2)*(1/15) = 1/30.

Your answer is 2/30, which makes me think that you're accounting for both the scenarios where first a man is chosen and where first a woman is chosen. However, as you have mentioned, the order of choosing either a man first or a woman first doesn't matter. Also, selecting (8 married people/16 total people) accounts for both the orders.

Please let me know what I'm missing and thanks!
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KarishmaB Bunuel One doubt under the topic - The Intricacies of Probability

Example 2: Six friends live in the city of Monrovia. There are four natural attractions around Monrovia – a waterfall, a safari, a lake and some caves. The friends decide to take a vacation together at one of these attractions. To select the attraction, each one of them votes for one of the attractions. What is the probability that each one of them votes for the same attraction?

Example 3: Six friends live in the city of Monrovia. There are four natural attractions around Monrovia – a waterfall, a safari, a lake and some caves. The friends decide to take a vacation together at one of these attractions. To select the attraction, each one of them votes for one of the attractions. What is the probability that each attraction gets at least one vote?

In example 3, we are dividing by the answer by total number of possibilities but in example 2 we are not. When I was solving example 3, I had my answer right until the part of dividing by total possibilities.
Getting confused as to when to divide by total possibilities versus when not to. Please help.


I cannot thank you enough KarishmaB Bunuel for this amazing collection of study material.­­­­­
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KarishmaB Bunuel One doubt under the topic - The Intricacies of Probability

Example 2: Six friends live in the city of Monrovia. There are four natural attractions around Monrovia – a waterfall, a safari, a lake and some caves. The friends decide to take a vacation together at one of these attractions. To select the attraction, each one of them votes for one of the attractions. What is the probability that each one of them votes for the same attraction?

Example 3: Six friends live in the city of Monrovia. There are four natural attractions around Monrovia – a waterfall, a safari, a lake and some caves. The friends decide to take a vacation together at one of these attractions. To select the attraction, each one of them votes for one of the attractions. What is the probability that each attraction gets at least one vote?

In example 3, we are dividing by the answer by total number of possibilities but in example 2 we are not. When I was solving example 3, I had my answer right until the part of dividing by total possibilities.
Getting confused as to when to divide by total possibilities versus when not to. Please help.


I cannot thank you enough KarishmaB Bunuel for this amazing collection of study material.­­­­­

­In both cases, we divide by the total number of ways the 6 friends can vote, which is 4^6:

In example 2, we have 4/4^6, and in example 3, we have (480 + 1,080)/4^6.

Check discussion on these questions in the links below:
https://gmatclub.com/forum/six-friends- ... 74961.html
https://gmatclub.com/forum/six-friends- ... 55321.html

Hope it helps.
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Quote:
P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

Quesiton: If the problem states that there are FOUR married couples, why are using 6 as a base to find out how many women are married? should it not be 4? Given there are FOUR married women and FOUR married men?

Thank you
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kubrah

Quote:
P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

 
Quesiton: If the problem states that there are FOUR married couples, why are using 6 as a base to find out how many women are married? should it not be 4? Given there are FOUR married women and FOUR married men?

Thank you
­
Because there is only one woman out of 6 who is the wife of the selected man from the 10.

Check other solutions here: https://gmatclub.com/forum/there-is-a-g ... 96557.html
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Bunuel
Probability with Conditions!
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP

Let’s look at the concept of conditional probability in detail today. (As if the probability questions weren’t tricky enough!) But since I like to discuss advanced concepts in this blog (in addition to alternative approaches and very important fundamentals), it would not be fair on my part to end the probability discussion without a quick review of conditional probability. Let me start by tossing a question at you.

Question 1: Alex tosses a coin four times. On two of the tosses (we don’t know which two), he gets ‘Heads’. What is the probability that he gets ‘Tails’ on other two tosses?

Solution: Wait a minute! Isn’t it something like the Binomial Probability questions we saw last week? It is but notice that it is also a conditional probability question. You are given that on at least 2 tosses, he got ‘Heads’. Under this condition, you want to find the probability that he got 2 tails i.e. he got 2 heads and 2 tails on his 4 tosses.

Conditional Probability is calculated as given below:

P(A given B) = P(A)/P(B)

Here, we are trying to find the probability that event A happens given that event B happens. To understand this formula, think of it this way:

Say there are a total of 100 cases and event B takes place in 10 cases. Also, event A takes place in 5 of the 10 cases in which event B takes place (A is a more restricted event under event B). Let’s say we know that event B has taken place. This means that one of the 10 cases has occurred. The probability that A has taken place is 5/10 = 1/2 and not 5/100. I hope this makes sense to you. Let me take an example to make this clearer.

GMAT score can take one of 61 values (200/210/220 ... 780/790/800). So there are a total of 61 cases. What is the probability that I will score above 700 on GMAT? (well, it should be 100% because otherwise I should not be writing blog posts on GMAT but let’s assume that all the scores are equally likely)

There are 10 possible scores above 700 (710/720/730 ... 800). Probability of a score above 700 = 10/61. That is our simple probability that we have been working on till date.

Now, consider this: You know that I scored above 600. How much exactly, you do not know! What will you say is the probability that I scored above 700? (again assuming that all the scores are equally likely)

I did score above 600. Now, what is the probability that I scored above 700? There are 20 possible scores above 600 (610/620/630 ... 800). Any of them could have been my score. What is the probability that I actually scored above 700? It is 10/20. The event that I scored more than 700 is event A. It is more restrictive than event B i.e. the event that I scored more than 600. Given that event B took place i.e. I scored above 600, the probability that event A took place i.e. I scored above 700 is P(Score above 700)/P(Score above 600). This is conditional probability.

I hope you see the difference between probability and conditional probability.

Let’s go back to the original question now.

We want to find this probability: P(‘2 Heads and 2 Tails’ given ‘At least 2 Heads’) = P(2 Heads and 2 Tails)/P(At least 2 Heads)

We can easily find P(2 Heads and 2 Tails) and P(At least 2 Heads) since we are comfortable with the concepts of binomial probability! (right?)

P(2 Heads and 2 Tails) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/(2!*2!) = 3/8
You multiply by 4!/(2!*2!) because out of the four tosses, any 2 could be heads and the other two would be tails. So you have to account for all arrangements: HHTT, HTHT, TTHH etc

P(Atleast 2 Heads) = P(2 Heads and 2 Tails) + P(3 Heads, 1 Tails) + P(4 Heads)

Let me remind you here that we can also find P(Atleast 2 Heads) in the reverse way like this:

P(Atleast 2 Heads) = 1 – [P(4 Tails) + P(3 Tails, 1 Heads)]

Let me show you the calculations involved in both the methods.

P(2 Heads and 2 Tails) = 3/8 (calculated above)

P(3 Heads, 1 Tails) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/3! = 1/4

We multiply by 4!/3! to account for all arrangements e.g. HHHT, HHTH etc

P(4 Heads) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16

P(Atleast 2 Heads) = 3/8 + 1/4 + 1/16 = 11/16

OR

P(4 Tails) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) = 1/16

P(3 Tails, 1 Heads) = (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) * 4!/3! = 1/4

P(Atleast 2 Heads) = 1 – (1/16 + 1/4) = 11/16

As expected, the value of P(Atleast 2 Heads) is the same using either method.

P(‘2 Heads and 2 Tails’ given ‘At least 2 Heads’) = P(2 Heads and 2 Tails)/P(At least 2 Heads) = (3/8)/(11/16) = 6/11

Notice here that you can ignore all the (1/2)s since in every case, you get (1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2)*(1/2) because Heads and Tails have equal probability. You can simply solve this question using this method:

No of arrangements with 2 Heads and 2 Tails = 4!/(2!*2!) = 6

No of arrangements with 3 Heads and 1 Tails = 4!/3! = 4

No of arrangements with 4 Heads = 4!/4! = 1

No of arrangements with at least 2 Heads = 6 + 4 + 1 = 11

P(‘2 Heads and 2 Tails’ given ‘At least 2 Heads’) = 6/11

Out of the total number of arrangements of ‘At least 2 Heads’ (which is 11), only 6 are such that you get 2 Heads and 2 Tails.

Mind you, you cannot do that if the probabilities differ. Look at the question given below:

Question 2: Alex has five children. He has at least two girls (you do not know which two of his five children are girls). What is the probability that he has at least two boys too? (The probability of having a boy is 0.4 while the probability of having a girl is 0.6)

Think about what you are going to do here. We will look at the solution of this question in the next post.
Bunuel
Is there a typo in the conditional probability equation. Shouldn’t it be P(A intersection B)/P(B)?
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How would the total number of outcomes in the second question when solving it using the former method be 120 ways? Shouldn't it be 60 ways?

Since it's in the denominator,

a/(Men X Women) + b/(Women X Men) = a+b/ (Men X Women) = a+b/60

In the first question, the total number of outcomes would be 15*15 = 225. We do not add 225 from both the cases to make it 450.

As per my thought process, there are no two methods rather different number of cases. In the first question there are two cases (odd + even) + (even + odd) since we are picking two numbers from the same lot. In the second question, we can either choose the women first and the man later (4/6 * 1/10) OR choose the man first and the woman later (4/10 * 1/6), these do not make two separate cases but rather two ways to reach the same answer.

Bunuel KarishmaB


Bunuel
When Does Order Matter?
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP

I have to admit that probability is confusing. The problem is not so much that students find it hard to understand as that teachers find it hard to explain. There are subtle points in a probability question that make all the difference in the world and it takes a ton of ingenuity to explain them in a manner that others understand. You either get the point right away, or you don’t.

Here, I will try to explain a probability concept I have always found very difficult to explain in person so the fact that I am attempting to explain it in a post is making me queasy. Nevertheless, the concept is important and I think it deserves a post.

Let me give you two questions:

Question 1: First 15 positive integers are written on a board. If two numbers are selected one by one from the board at random (the numbers are not necessarily different), what is the probability that the sum of these numbers is odd?

Question 2: There is a group of people consisting of 10 men and 6 women. Among these 16 people, there are 4 married couples (man-woman couples). If one man and one woman are selected at random, what is the probability that a married couple gets selected?

Now, let me give you the solutions to these questions. Note that the two solutions are different. We will discuss the reasons behind the difference today.

Solution 1:

Numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 13, 14, 15

When will the sum of two of these numbers be odd? When one number is odd and the other is even.

P(Sum is Odd) = P(First number is Odd)*P(Second number is even) + P(First number is Even)*P(Second number is Odd)

P(Sum is Odd) = (8/15)*(7/15) + (7/15)*(8/15) = 112/225

Solution 2:

P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

P(Married Couple is Selected) = (4/10)*(1/6) = 4/60

The question I come across here is this: Why is the second question not solved the way we solved the first question? After all, selecting two things together is the same as selecting them one after another (explained in your Combinatorics book) i.e. why don’t we solve the second question in this way:

P(Selecting a Married Couple) = P(Selecting a Married Man)*P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) + P(Selecting a Married Woman)*P(Selecting the Husband of the Woman)

= (4/10)*(1/6) + (4/6)*(1/10)

Other than the fact that it gives the wrong answer, why can’t we solve it like this? Because the order doesn’t matter here. It doesn’t matter whether we pick the husband first or the wife first. The end result is the same. After we pick either one, the probability of picking the other one stays the same. The two selections have to be made from two different groups. They cannot be made from the same group (contrary to the first question). It doesn’t matter whether you catch hold of the man first or the woman first.

In the first question, the probability of picking the correct second number depends on what you picked in the first selection. Hence we consider the order. I will explain this by trying to solve the first question the way we solved the second question:

On first selection, we can pick any number so the probability is 1. The second selection depends on what you selected in the first pick. If you selected an odd number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an even number is 7/15. If you selected an even number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an odd number is 8/15. So what do you do? Do you use 7/15 or 8/15 with 1? You cannot say so you must take individual cases.

Case 1: Select an odd number and then an even number: (8/15) * (7/15)

Case 2: Select an even number and then an odd number: (7/15) * (8/15)

The total cases considered here are 15*15 (select first number in 15 ways and select the second number in 15 ways since the second number can be the same as the first number). In 8*7 ways, you will select an odd number and then an even number. In 7*8 ways, you will select an even number and then an odd number. In both the cases, the sum will be odd. This gives us a probability of (56+56)/225 = 112/225

The total probability of 1 is obtained as follows:

1 = P(first number odd, second number even) + P(first number even, second number odd) + P(first number odd, second number odd) + P(first number even, second number even)

= 56/225 + 56/225 + 64/225 + 49/225 = 1

We are only interested in the 56/225 + 56/225 part.

In the second question, we need to select a couple. Here, it doesn’t matter whether you select the man first or the woman; the two member types are different and there is only one way in which you can select the corresponding partner. You cannot select two members of the same type e.g. two men or two women. Hence we don’t need to bother with calculating the different cases of selecting the man first or the woman first.

Of course, even if we do it, we will get the correct answer. Let me show you the calculation.

The total number of ways of selecting a man and a woman are ‘select a man in 10 ways’ and ‘a woman in 6 ways’. Then ‘select a woman in 6 ways’ and ‘then a man in 10 ways’ i.e. total 120 ways. To select a couple, you can select a man in 4 ways and the woman in 1 way. You can select a woman in 4 ways and the man in 1 way. So total 4 + 4 = 8 ways.

Probability of selecting a couple = 8/120 = 4/60 (same as before).

To sum it, the two questions are quite different.

In the first question, you have two groups of numbers: Even Numbers and Odd Numbers

You can select the two numbers from different groups or from the same group. Hence the total number of cases is 15*15. Also, you can select the same number again.

In the second question, you have two groups of members: Men and Women

You must select the two members from different groups. You cannot select two men or two women. Hence the total number of cases is only 10*6 (and not 16*15). You cannot select the same member again.

In case of confusion, just use the combinations approach rather than probability. You will invariably get the correct answer.
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Yes, it stays 60 only. Using the second method (incorrect one). it becomes 8/60 since we add 4/60 twice to make the order matter.

Think about how we got 60. For each man selected, there are 6 options of women. So we get all cases such as
{H1, W1}, {H1, W2}, {H1, W3}......
{H2, W1}, {H2, W2}......
...
...
{H10, W1}, {H10, W2} ... etc


If the married couples are 1, 2 3 and 4, only in 4 of these 60 cases will we get a husband=wife married pair {H1, W1}, {H2, W2}, {H3, W3} and {H4, W4}




Khushe
How would the total number of outcomes in the second question when solving it using the former method be 120 ways? Shouldn't it be 60 ways?

Since it's in the denominator,

a/(Men X Women) + b/(Women X Men) = a+b/ (Men X Women) = a+b/60

In the first question, the total number of outcomes would be 15*15 = 225. We do not add 225 from both the cases to make it 450.

As per my thought process, there are no two methods rather different number of cases. In the first question there are two cases (odd + even) + (even + odd) since we are picking two numbers from the same lot. In the second question, we can either choose the women first and man later (4/6 * 1/10) OR choose the man first and the woman later (4/10 * 1/6), these do not make two separate cases but rather two ways to reach the same answer.

Bunuel KarishmaB


Bunuel
When Does Order Matter?
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP

I have to admit that probability is confusing. The problem is not so much that students find it hard to understand as that teachers find it hard to explain. There are subtle points in a probability question that make all the difference in the world and it takes a ton of ingenuity to explain them in a manner that others understand. You either get the point right away, or you don’t.

Here, I will try to explain a probability concept I have always found very difficult to explain in person so the fact that I am attempting to explain it in a post is making me queasy. Nevertheless, the concept is important and I think it deserves a post.

Let me give you two questions:

Question 1: First 15 positive integers are written on a board. If two numbers are selected one by one from the board at random (the numbers are not necessarily different), what is the probability that the sum of these numbers is odd?

Question 2: There is a group of people consisting of 10 men and 6 women. Among these 16 people, there are 4 married couples (man-woman couples). If one man and one woman are selected at random, what is the probability that a married couple gets selected?

Now, let me give you the solutions to these questions. Note that the two solutions are different. We will discuss the reasons behind the difference today.

Solution 1:

Numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 13, 14, 15

When will the sum of two of these numbers be odd? When one number is odd and the other is even.

P(Sum is Odd) = P(First number is Odd)*P(Second number is even) + P(First number is Even)*P(Second number is Odd)

P(Sum is Odd) = (8/15)*(7/15) + (7/15)*(8/15) = 112/225

Solution 2:

P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

P(Married Couple is Selected) = (4/10)*(1/6) = 4/60

The question I come across here is this: Why is the second question not solved the way we solved the first question? After all, selecting two things together is the same as selecting them one after another (explained in your Combinatorics book) i.e. why don’t we solve the second question in this way:

P(Selecting a Married Couple) = P(Selecting a Married Man)*P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) + P(Selecting a Married Woman)*P(Selecting the Husband of the Woman)

= (4/10)*(1/6) + (4/6)*(1/10)

Other than the fact that it gives the wrong answer, why can’t we solve it like this? Because the order doesn’t matter here. It doesn’t matter whether we pick the husband first or the wife first. The end result is the same. After we pick either one, the probability of picking the other one stays the same. The two selections have to be made from two different groups. They cannot be made from the same group (contrary to the first question). It doesn’t matter whether you catch hold of the man first or the woman first.

In the first question, the probability of picking the correct second number depends on what you picked in the first selection. Hence we consider the order. I will explain this by trying to solve the first question the way we solved the second question:

On first selection, we can pick any number so the probability is 1. The second selection depends on what you selected in the first pick. If you selected an odd number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an even number is 7/15. If you selected an even number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an odd number is 8/15. So what do you do? Do you use 7/15 or 8/15 with 1? You cannot say so you must take individual cases.

Case 1: Select an odd number and then an even number: (8/15) * (7/15)

Case 2: Select an even number and then an odd number: (7/15) * (8/15)

The total cases considered here are 15*15 (select first number in 15 ways and select the second number in 15 ways since the second number can be the same as the first number). In 8*7 ways, you will select an odd number and then an even number. In 7*8 ways, you will select an even number and then an odd number. In both the cases, the sum will be odd. This gives us a probability of (56+56)/225 = 112/225

The total probability of 1 is obtained as follows:

1 = P(first number odd, second number even) + P(first number even, second number odd) + P(first number odd, second number odd) + P(first number even, second number even)

= 56/225 + 56/225 + 64/225 + 49/225 = 1

We are only interested in the 56/225 + 56/225 part.

In the second question, we need to select a couple. Here, it doesn’t matter whether you select the man first or the woman; the two member types are different and there is only one way in which you can select the corresponding partner. You cannot select two members of the same type e.g. two men or two women. Hence we don’t need to bother with calculating the different cases of selecting the man first or the woman first.

Of course, even if we do it, we will get the correct answer. Let me show you the calculation.

The total number of ways of selecting a man and a woman are ‘select a man in 10 ways’ and ‘a woman in 6 ways’. Then ‘select a woman in 6 ways’ and ‘then a man in 10 ways’ i.e. total 120 ways. To select a couple, you can select a man in 4 ways and the woman in 1 way. You can select a woman in 4 ways and the man in 1 way. So total 4 + 4 = 8 ways.

Probability of selecting a couple = 8/120 = 4/60 (same as before).

To sum it, the two questions are quite different.

In the first question, you have two groups of numbers: Even Numbers and Odd Numbers

You can select the two numbers from different groups or from the same group. Hence the total number of cases is 15*15. Also, you can select the same number again.

In the second question, you have two groups of members: Men and Women

You must select the two members from different groups. You cannot select two men or two women. Hence the total number of cases is only 10*6 (and not 16*15). You cannot select the same member again.

In case of confusion, just use the combinations approach rather than probability. You will invariably get the correct answer.
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Understood. Thank you for the quick response!
KarishmaB
Yes, it stays 60 only. Using the second method (incorrect one). it becomes 8/60 since we add 4/60 twice to make the order matter.

Think about how we got 60. For each man selected, there are 6 options of women. So we get all cases such as
{H1, W1}, {H1, W2}, {H1, W3}......
{H2, W1}, {H2, W2}......
...
...
{H10, W1}, {H10, W2} ... etc


If the married couples are 1, 2 3 and 4, only in 4 of these 60 cases will we get a husband=wife married pair {H1, W1}, {H2, W2}, {H3, W3} and {H4, W4}




Khushe
How would the total number of outcomes in the second question when solving it using the former method be 120 ways? Shouldn't it be 60 ways?

Since it's in the denominator,

a/(Men X Women) + b/(Women X Men) = a+b/ (Men X Women) = a+b/60

In the first question, the total number of outcomes would be 15*15 = 225. We do not add 225 from both the cases to make it 450.

As per my thought process, there are no two methods rather different number of cases. In the first question there are two cases (odd + even) + (even + odd) since we are picking two numbers from the same lot. In the second question, we can either choose the women first and man later (4/6 * 1/10) OR choose the man first and the woman later (4/10 * 1/6), these do not make two separate cases but rather two ways to reach the same answer.

Bunuel KarishmaB


Bunuel
When Does Order Matter?
BY Karishma, VERITAS PREP

I have to admit that probability is confusing. The problem is not so much that students find it hard to understand as that teachers find it hard to explain. There are subtle points in a probability question that make all the difference in the world and it takes a ton of ingenuity to explain them in a manner that others understand. You either get the point right away, or you don’t.

Here, I will try to explain a probability concept I have always found very difficult to explain in person so the fact that I am attempting to explain it in a post is making me queasy. Nevertheless, the concept is important and I think it deserves a post.

Let me give you two questions:

Question 1: First 15 positive integers are written on a board. If two numbers are selected one by one from the board at random (the numbers are not necessarily different), what is the probability that the sum of these numbers is odd?

Question 2: There is a group of people consisting of 10 men and 6 women. Among these 16 people, there are 4 married couples (man-woman couples). If one man and one woman are selected at random, what is the probability that a married couple gets selected?

Now, let me give you the solutions to these questions. Note that the two solutions are different. We will discuss the reasons behind the difference today.

Solution 1:

Numbers: 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., 13, 14, 15

When will the sum of two of these numbers be odd? When one number is odd and the other is even.

P(Sum is Odd) = P(First number is Odd)*P(Second number is even) + P(First number is Even)*P(Second number is Odd)

P(Sum is Odd) = (8/15)*(7/15) + (7/15)*(8/15) = 112/225

Solution 2:

P(Selecting a Married Man) = 4/10

P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) = 1/6

P(Married Couple is Selected) = (4/10)*(1/6) = 4/60

The question I come across here is this: Why is the second question not solved the way we solved the first question? After all, selecting two things together is the same as selecting them one after another (explained in your Combinatorics book) i.e. why don’t we solve the second question in this way:

P(Selecting a Married Couple) = P(Selecting a Married Man)*P(Selecting the Wife of that Man) + P(Selecting a Married Woman)*P(Selecting the Husband of the Woman)

= (4/10)*(1/6) + (4/6)*(1/10)

Other than the fact that it gives the wrong answer, why can’t we solve it like this? Because the order doesn’t matter here. It doesn’t matter whether we pick the husband first or the wife first. The end result is the same. After we pick either one, the probability of picking the other one stays the same. The two selections have to be made from two different groups. They cannot be made from the same group (contrary to the first question). It doesn’t matter whether you catch hold of the man first or the woman first.

In the first question, the probability of picking the correct second number depends on what you picked in the first selection. Hence we consider the order. I will explain this by trying to solve the first question the way we solved the second question:

On first selection, we can pick any number so the probability is 1. The second selection depends on what you selected in the first pick. If you selected an odd number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an even number is 7/15. If you selected an even number in the first pick, the probability of selecting an odd number is 8/15. So what do you do? Do you use 7/15 or 8/15 with 1? You cannot say so you must take individual cases.

Case 1: Select an odd number and then an even number: (8/15) * (7/15)

Case 2: Select an even number and then an odd number: (7/15) * (8/15)

The total cases considered here are 15*15 (select first number in 15 ways and select the second number in 15 ways since the second number can be the same as the first number). In 8*7 ways, you will select an odd number and then an even number. In 7*8 ways, you will select an even number and then an odd number. In both the cases, the sum will be odd. This gives us a probability of (56+56)/225 = 112/225

The total probability of 1 is obtained as follows:

1 = P(first number odd, second number even) + P(first number even, second number odd) + P(first number odd, second number odd) + P(first number even, second number even)

= 56/225 + 56/225 + 64/225 + 49/225 = 1

We are only interested in the 56/225 + 56/225 part.

In the second question, we need to select a couple. Here, it doesn’t matter whether you select the man first or the woman; the two member types are different and there is only one way in which you can select the corresponding partner. You cannot select two members of the same type e.g. two men or two women. Hence we don’t need to bother with calculating the different cases of selecting the man first or the woman first.

Of course, even if we do it, we will get the correct answer. Let me show you the calculation.

The total number of ways of selecting a man and a woman are ‘select a man in 10 ways’ and ‘a woman in 6 ways’. Then ‘select a woman in 6 ways’ and ‘then a man in 10 ways’ i.e. total 120 ways. To select a couple, you can select a man in 4 ways and the woman in 1 way. You can select a woman in 4 ways and the man in 1 way. So total 4 + 4 = 8 ways.

Probability of selecting a couple = 8/120 = 4/60 (same as before).

To sum it, the two questions are quite different.

In the first question, you have two groups of numbers: Even Numbers and Odd Numbers

You can select the two numbers from different groups or from the same group. Hence the total number of cases is 15*15. Also, you can select the same number again.

In the second question, you have two groups of members: Men and Women

You must select the two members from different groups. You cannot select two men or two women. Hence the total number of cases is only 10*6 (and not 16*15). You cannot select the same member again.

In case of confusion, just use the combinations approach rather than probability. You will invariably get the correct answer.
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