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Can there be two pronouns, one singular and other plural pointing to two different singular and plural antecedant respectively?

For example, "Normally a bone becomes fossilized through the action of groundwater, which permeates the bone, washes away its organic components, and replaces them with minerals."

Here 'its' and 'them' are two pronouns used pointing to different antecedants. How is this not ambiguous?

It is an OG example.
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monil2100
Can there be two pronouns, one singular and other plural pointing to two different singular and plural antecedant respectively?

For example, "Normally a bone becomes fossilized through the action of groundwater, which permeates the bone, washes away its organic components, and replaces them with minerals."

Here 'its' and 'them' are two pronouns used pointing to different antecedants. How is this not ambiguous?

It is an OG example.
Notice that before the plural pronoun "them", we only have ONE plural noun! So that plural pronoun must refer unambiguously to one thing and one thing alone: "components".

Meanwhile, we know that the "groundwater" is what 1) permeates, 2) washes, and 3) replaces. The groundwater cannot wash away its own organic components, so the only logical antecedent for "its" is "bone".

I hope this helps!
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Hi,

Can a pronoun refer to an infinitive phrase where the infinitive phrase is functioning as 'Noun' ?
example - The doctors have managed to reduce the mortality rate, and the public is very pleased with them for doing it.

in this the 'it' logically refers to 'to reduce the mortality rate'. is this correct or not and why?
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Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

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