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505-555 Level|   Parallelism|   Subject Verb Agreement|                        
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nitin1989
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 05 Apr 2018, 12:27
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How option E can be the right answer as in option E two independent clauses are joined without FANBOYS.
Can anyone explain what i am missing in this question??
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 05 Apr 2018, 22:46
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nitin1989
How option E can be the right answer as in option E two independent clauses are joined without FANBOYS.
Can anyone explain what i am missing in this question??
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Hi Nitin, with Option E, the sentence is:

The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have....

The above sentence is similar to the following correct sentence:

Peter said that he would work hard.

Not getting bogged down by semantics and grammar, you could just remember this as a rule that any clause starting with that is not an Independent clause.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 27 Aug 2018, 08:45
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Official Explanation

Grammatical construction; Logical predication
All predicates need a proper logical subject. Here, the relevant predicates are the verbs increase,
set aside, and have. With it as the subject for set aside—referring back to the Life and Casualty Company—all three verbs should have this
as their understood subject. With a di erent subject for set aside, at least one of the other verbs lacks a proper logical subject. Also, this sentence uses the word that after hope to start the subordinate clause, but then incorrectly repeats the that after the initial adverbial phrase (by increasing . . . billion). Only the first that is grammatically correct.

A e additional that makes the sentence ungrammatical. Also, because in this context the hope is forward‐looking (bit by bit, year by year), it would be preferable to use the future tense, will no longer have to, instead of the present no longer has to.

B With enough as the subject of set aside, the next subject (it) is naturally interpreted as enough, but this is not a logical choice for the subject of use.

C e phrase no longer having is ungrammatical when connected to the rest of the sentence by and, which should connect two regular clauses; no longer having . . . is a mere phrase, not a clause, and no longer has would be correct.

D For no longer having, illogically, the implied subject is enough; the implied subject, instead, should be the company referred to at the beginning of the sentence.

E Correct. ere is only one that, and will no longer have to use has its proper logical subject (it) from the clause preceding it.
The correct answer is E.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment Updated on: 07 May 2019, 12:45
Originally posted by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 13 Sep 2018, 17:07.
Last edited by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 07 May 2019, 12:45, edited 1 time in total.
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Hello Everyone!

Let's tackle this question, one problem at a time, and get to the correct answer quickly! First, here is the original question with the major differences between each option highlighted in orange:

The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

After a quick scan over each option, a couple major differences jump out:

1. How they begin: it has set aside enough / enough has been set aside
2. How they end: no longer has / have no longer / no longer having / no longer have

Let's start with #1 on our list: how they begin. Either way we choose to go with this, we will knock out 2-3 answers right away.

The biggest question we have to ask here is, "WHO is setting aside the money?"

it has set aside enough = "it" is clearly referring back to the company --> the company is setting aside the money
enough has been set aside = there is no clear pronoun referring to the company or anyone else --> UNCLEAR who set aside the money!

Therefore, we can eliminate options B & D because they don't clearly say WHO is setting aside the money for later, which is a problem with clarity!

Now that we're left with only 3 options, let's take a look at #2 on our list: how each option ends!

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

This is INCORRECT for a couple reasons. First, the word "that" is unnecessary here and sounds redundant. Second, the verb "has" is present tense, which isn't the best choice to indicate future events (using profits and capital to pay claims). If a sentence says they have "hope" that an action will have positive consequences, they're talking about the future, not the present.

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

This is INCORRECT because it uses the gerund "having" as a verb, which doesn't work here. It also indicates a present tense action, rather than a future one.

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

This is CORRECT! It's clear that the company set aside the payments, thanks to the pronoun "it." It also uses future tense "will have" to indicate the money will go toward future claims payments!


There you have it - option E is the correct choice!


Don't study for the GMAT. Train for it.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 30 Sep 2018, 00:02
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Divyadisha
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

1) profits and capital require plural verb 'have'
2) 'The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion' is a fragment sentence followed by 'that', which is not correct.
3) 'Having to' is not right

E is the answer
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 09 Oct 2018, 03:28
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AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have
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isn't here 'have' is incorrect?. Shouldn't it be singular verb 'has' here? as the subject is 'The Life and Casualty Company'
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 11 Nov 2018, 12:36
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HasnainAfxal
AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have
isn't here 'have' is incorrect?. Shouldn't it be singular verb 'has' here? as the subject is 'The Life and Casualty Company'
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Hi HasnainAfxal,
The verb tense used in OA is correct. Will have is future perfect tense and Will + has is incorrect.

Future perfect tense indicates that an action will have been completed (finished or "perfected") at some point in the future.

1. A Republican president will have been in the White House for nearly half of the twenty-first century.
2. By 2025, China will have surpassed the USA as the world's largest economy.

Hope this helps!! :)
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 17 Dec 2018, 05:09
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Why E is correct? The company hopes....., It has set aside...... I see two independent clause with only one comma to seperate them.
Please help, thanks
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 17 Dec 2018, 09:18
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vivickytian1212
Why E is correct? The company hopes....., It has set aside...... I see two independent clause with only one comma to seperate them.
Please help, thanks
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Hi vivickytian1212, there is a that in between.

The company hopes that....it has set aside....
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 23 Jun 2019, 07:32
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EducationAisle


I was wondering why 2 independent clauses are just connected by a comma in option E.

I dont agree with that "it has..." is a dependent clause marked by subordinating conjunction "that". This is the first time I ever see a question like this. Why would we need a comma in choice E if without comma it makes more sense that the 2nd part is a subordinating clause?

It would make even more sense if "by increasing..." was enclosed with commas. Is "by increasing..." actually modifies "hopes" so to show that it modifies previous verb we put a comma there?

Is this similar situation to "and" + VERB-ING modifier placement of commas to refer to the 1st part or the 2nd part of the sentence modifying.

Thank you
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 24 Jun 2019, 04:08
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Brego

I don't agree with that "it has..." is a dependent clause marked by subordinating conjunction "that".
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Actually the presence of that (used as a conjunction here) makes the portion after that, a dependent clause.

Quote:
This is the first time I ever see a question like this.
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Perhaps, the following simple sentence would help:

Michael hopes that by working hard, he will be able to score well.

This is a completely valid sentence. Option E has a construct very similar to the above sentence.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 20 Nov 2020, 02:13
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Skywalker18
HasnainAfxal
AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have
isn't here 'have' is incorrect?. Shouldn't it be singular verb 'has' here? as the subject is 'The Life and Casualty Company'

Hi HasnainAfxal,
The verb tense used in OA is correct. Will have is future perfect tense and Will + has is incorrect.

Future perfect tense indicates that an action will have been completed (finished or "perfected") at some point in the future.

1. A Republican president will have been in the White House for nearly half of the twenty-first century.
2. By 2025, China will have surpassed the USA as the world's largest economy.

Hope this helps!! :)
Show more

Skywalker18 - Thanks.
The use of the "future perfect" here has been really confusing me. My understanding was that for us to use future perfect there should be 2 related events in the future, where the earlier of the 2 events is expressed in "future perfect". This does not apply to this example, as there is only one event in the future.

What am I missing? :)
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 26 Apr 2021, 21:46
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The Life and Casualty Company[/highlight] hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have


Skywalker18 - Thanks.
The use of the "future perfect" here has been really confusing me. My understanding was that for us to use future perfect there should be 2 related events in the future, where the earlier of the 2 events is expressed in "future perfect". This does not apply to this example, as there is only one event in the future.

What am I missing? :)
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Hello,

I am no expert, but I think the usage of “bit by bit, year by year” makes the use of future perfect tense “will no longer have to” preferable.
Maybe GMATNinja GMATNinjaTwo mikemcgarry EducationAisle Skywalker18 will be able to exlain it better that why future perfect tense is used here without a second future event.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 27 Apr 2021, 00:05
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NischalSR
I am no expert, but I think the usage of “bit by bit, year by year” makes the use of future perfect tense “will no longer have to” preferable.
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I don't believe the correct option (option E) is using future perfect tense at all!

From what I know, future perfect tense has the following structure: will + have + past participle

...it will no longer have to use its profits... does not have a past participle.

An example of future perfect tense would be:

I will have left by the time you arrive.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 06 Jun 2021, 22:08
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AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.


(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have
Show more

Hi VeritasKarishma EducationAisle

I know we already have meaning issue with option B as it does not clarify who has set aside enough money, and we can use this to eliminate B; however, I wanted to check can we also eliminate B because of comma splice error, It is joining two IC with "and" without using comma (,) "Enough has been set aside..." and "it will no longer have to.."
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 07 Jun 2021, 02:39
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RohitSaluja
I know we already have meaning issue with option B as it does not clarify who has set aside enough money, and we can use this to eliminate B; however, I wanted to check can we also eliminate B because of comma splice error, It is joining two IC with "and" without using comma (,) "Enough has been set aside..." and "it will no longer have to.."
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Hi Rohit, comma splice is when two ICs are connected by just a comma.

In other words, there is no "coordinating conjunction" in case of a comma splice.

Since coordinating conjunction "and" is used in B, it is technically not a "comma splice".
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 07 Jun 2021, 02:45
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EducationAisle
RohitSaluja
I know we already have meaning issue with option B as it does not clarify who has set aside enough money, and we can use this to eliminate B; however, I wanted to check can we also eliminate B because of comma splice error, It is joining two IC with "and" without using comma (,) "Enough has been set aside..." and "it will no longer have to.."
Hi Rohit, comma splice is when two ICs are connected by just a comma.

In other words, there is no "coordinating conjunction" in case of a comma splice.

Since coordinating conjunction "and" is used in B, it is technically not a "comma splice".
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Hi EducationAisle, I guess i am not well versed with terminonology, sorry about that, but while using FANBOYS, isn't it mandatory to use a comma before the conjunction if that conjunction is used to connect two IC as is the case here?
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 07 Jun 2021, 07:12
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RohitSaluja

Hi EducationAisle, I guess i am not well versed with terminonology, sorry about that, but while using FANBOYS, isn't it mandatory to use a comma before the conjunction if that conjunction is used to connect two IC as is the case here?
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Hi Rohit, in this case, comma will not be justified. Presence/absence of a comma depends on the intended meaning.

Let's take the following two sentences:

(1) By asking questions, Rohit wants to clear this doubts, and he also wishes to reinforce his understanding.

(2) By asking questions, Rohit wants to clear this doubts and he also wishes to reinforce his understanding.

The only difference between these sentences is that there is no comma before and in the second sentence. Let's see what impact this has, on the meaning.

Statement (1) depicts the following:
(1a) By asking questions, Rohit wants to clear this doubts, and
(1b) he also wishes to reinforce his understanding

Statement (2) depicts the following:
By asking questions,
(2a) Rohit wants to clear this doubts and
(2b) he also wishes to reinforce his understanding.

It should be very clear that (1) makes no sense, because "he also wishes to reinforce his understanding" is not a completely independent/unrelated fact, but is actually a consequence of "by asking questions". Hence, sentence (2) is more logical.

I have seen this meaning subtlety getting tested very occasionally on GMAT. Can perhaps dig out an official question.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 08 Jun 2021, 00:29
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RohitSaluja
AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.


(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

Hi VeritasKarishma EducationAisle

I know we already have meaning issue with option B as it does not clarify who has set aside enough money, and we can use this to eliminate B; however, I wanted to check can we also eliminate B because of comma splice error, It is joining two IC with "and" without using comma (,) "Enough has been set aside..." and "it will no longer have to.."
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Check this:
https://www.gmatclub.com/forum/veritas-prep-resource-links-no-longer-available-399979.html#/2014/0 ... -the-gmat/

Yes, when using FANBOYS to connect two complete ICs (with a subject and a verb), we usually use a comma.

But will I reject the option because of it? Perhaps not. I will instead look for something better for example
(E) ...it has set aside ... and will no longer have ...

There is no subject after "and" so it makes sense to not use comma.

Also note that (B) is ... will have no longer to ... which is incorrect.
You cannot separate "have" and "to".
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment 22 Dec 2021, 03:26
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KarishmaB
why we cannot seperate "have" and "to"?? Is it an idiomatic error?
why the position of “no longer” after “will have” is incorrect in B?

KarishmaB
RohitSaluja
AbdurRakib
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.


(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

Hi VeritasKarishma EducationAisle

I know we already have meaning issue with option B as it does not clarify who has set aside enough money, and we can use this to eliminate B; however, I wanted to check can we also eliminate B because of comma splice error, It is joining two IC with "and" without using comma (,) "Enough has been set aside..." and "it will no longer have to.."


Check this:
https://www.gmatclub.com/forum/veritas-prep-resource-links-no-longer-available-399979.html#/2014/0 ... -the-gmat/

Yes, when using FANBOYS to connect two complete ICs (with a subject and a verb), we usually use a comma.

But will I reject the option because of it? Perhaps not. I will instead look for something better for example
(E) ...it has set aside ... and will no longer have ...

There is no subject after "and" so it makes sense to not use comma.

Also note that (B) is ... will have no longer to ... which is incorrect.
You cannot separate "have" and "to".
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