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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment

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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 05 Apr 2018, 22:46
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nitin1989 wrote:
How option E can be the right answer as in option E two independent clauses are joined without FANBOYS.
Can anyone explain what i am missing in this question??

Hi Nitin, with Option E, the sentence is:

The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have....

The above sentence is similar to the following correct sentence:

Peter said that he would work hard.

Not getting bogged down by semantics and grammar, you could just remember this as a rule that any clause starting with that is not an Independent clause.
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 01 May 2018, 11:06
Quote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have


Hello

Two questions about option E. I will appreciate the help
1. What is the sentence structure of the answer option E. Is it IC, DC. If that's the case then how can we call the latter part of the sentence a DC(dependent clause)?
"it has set aside.... year by year" seems to be an IC because the pronoun It has a clear antecedent(company) and a clear verb (has). How come this construction is correct?

2. Option E latter part of the sentence uses an and. The two elements here are in a different tense. The first element is in Present perfect (sub+Has/have+ 3rd form of a verb) and the second element is in future perfect (sub+ will/shall+ have). Since both the elements are talking about the same thing, which is a company, so they are correct? That means we are allowed to construct a sentence in two separate tenses and call them parallel? An example: John has received 100k and will no longer have to worry about paying rent.

Thanks a lot for help.
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Originally posted by Rocket7 on 01 May 2018, 10:10.
Last edited by Rocket7 on 01 May 2018, 11:06, edited 3 times in total.
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 07 May 2018, 13:55
Rocket7 wrote:
Quote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have


Hello

Two questions about option E. I will appreciate the help
1. What is the sentence structure of the answer option E. Is it IC, DC. If that's the case then how can we call the latter part of the sentence a DC(dependent clause)?
"it has set aside.... year by year" seems to be an IC because the pronoun It has a clear antecedent(company) and a clear verb (has). How come this construction is correct?

2. Option E latter part of the sentence uses an and. The two elements here are in a different tense. The first element is in Present perfect (sub+Has/have+ 3rd form of a verb) and the second element is in future perfect (sub+ will/shall+ have). Since both the elements are talking about the same thing, which is a company, so they are correct? That means we are allowed to construct a sentence in two separate tenses and call them parallel? An example: John has received 100k and will no longer have to worry about paying rent.

Thanks a lot for help.

Hi Rocket7,
I can help you with the second one-
Yes, it's okay to have two different tense in a parallel structure.

Check the link below-

https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gram ... rb-tenses/

Hope it helps.

Posted from my mobile device
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Aug 2018, 08:45
Official Explanation

Grammatical construction; Logical predication
All predicates need a proper logical subject. Here, the relevant predicates are the verbs increase,
set aside, and have. With it as the subject for set aside—referring back to the Life and Casualty Company—all three verbs should have this
as their understood subject. With a di erent subject for set aside, at least one of the other verbs lacks a proper logical subject. Also, this sentence uses the word that after hope to start the subordinate clause, but then incorrectly repeats the that after the initial adverbial phrase (by increasing . . . billion). Only the first that is grammatically correct.

A e additional that makes the sentence ungrammatical. Also, because in this context the hope is forward‐looking (bit by bit, year by year), it would be preferable to use the future tense, will no longer have to, instead of the present no longer has to.

B With enough as the subject of set aside, the next subject (it) is naturally interpreted as enough, but this is not a logical choice for the subject of use.

C e phrase no longer having is ungrammatical when connected to the rest of the sentence by and, which should connect two regular clauses; no longer having . . . is a mere phrase, not a clause, and no longer has would be correct.

D For no longer having, illogically, the implied subject is enough; the implied subject, instead, should be the company referred to at the beginning of the sentence.

E Correct. ere is only one that, and will no longer have to use has its proper logical subject (it) from the clause preceding it.
The correct answer is E.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 07 May 2019, 12:45
3
Hello Everyone!

Let's tackle this question, one problem at a time, and get to the correct answer quickly! First, here is the original question with the major differences between each option highlighted in orange:

The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

After a quick scan over each option, a couple major differences jump out:

1. How they begin: it has set aside enough / enough has been set aside
2. How they end: no longer has / have no longer / no longer having / no longer have


Let's start with #1 on our list: how they begin. Either way we choose to go with this, we will knock out 2-3 answers right away.

The biggest question we have to ask here is, "WHO is setting aside the money?"

it has set aside enough = "it" is clearly referring back to the company --> the company is setting aside the money
enough has been set aside = there is no clear pronoun referring to the company or anyone else --> UNCLEAR who set aside the money!

Therefore, we can eliminate options B & D because they don't clearly say WHO is setting aside the money for later, which is a problem with clarity!

Now that we're left with only 3 options, let's take a look at #2 on our list: how each option ends!

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

This is INCORRECT for a couple reasons. First, the word "that" is unnecessary here and sounds redundant. Second, the verb "has" is present tense, which isn't the best choice to indicate future events (using profits and capital to pay claims). If a sentence says they have "hope" that an action will have positive consequences, they're talking about the future, not the present.

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

This is INCORRECT because it uses the gerund "having" as a verb, which doesn't work here. It also indicates a present tense action, rather than a future one.

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

This is CORRECT! It's clear that the company set aside the payments, thanks to the pronoun "it." It also uses future tense "will have" to indicate the money will go toward future claims payments!


There you have it - option E is the correct choice!


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Originally posted by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 13 Sep 2018, 17:07.
Last edited by EMPOWERgmatVerbal on 07 May 2019, 12:45, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Sep 2018, 00:02
Divyadisha wrote:
AbdurRakib wrote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have


1) profits and capital require plural verb 'have'
2) 'The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion' is a fragment sentence followed by 'that', which is not correct.
3) 'Having to' is not right

E is the answer


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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 09 Oct 2018, 03:28
AbdurRakib wrote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

isn't here 'have' is incorrect?. Shouldn't it be singular verb 'has' here? as the subject is 'The Life and Casualty Company'
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 11 Nov 2018, 12:36
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HasnainAfxal wrote:
AbdurRakib wrote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

(A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has

(B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer

(C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having

(D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having

(E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have

isn't here 'have' is incorrect?. Shouldn't it be singular verb 'has' here? as the subject is 'The Life and Casualty Company'


Hi HasnainAfxal,
The verb tense used in OA is correct. Will have is future perfect tense and Will + has is incorrect.

Future perfect tense indicates that an action will have been completed (finished or "perfected") at some point in the future.

1. A Republican president will have been in the White House for nearly half of the twenty-first century.
2. By 2025, China will have surpassed the USA as the world's largest economy.

Hope this helps!! :)
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Dec 2018, 05:09
Why E is correct? The company hopes....., It has set aside...... I see two independent clause with only one comma to seperate them.
Please help, thanks
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Dec 2018, 09:18
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vivickytian1212 wrote:
Why E is correct? The company hopes....., It has set aside...... I see two independent clause with only one comma to seperate them.
Please help, thanks

Hi vivickytian1212, there is a that in between.

The company hopes that....it has set aside....
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Feb 2019, 18:33
I don´t understand the purpose of the first comma. What would be the meaning of the sentence if the comma didn´t exist?
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Jun 2019, 07:32
EducationAisle


I was wondering why 2 independent clauses are just connected by a comma in option E.

I dont agree with that "it has..." is a dependent clause marked by subordinating conjunction "that". This is the first time I ever see a question like this. Why would we need a comma in choice E if without comma it makes more sense that the 2nd part is a subordinating clause?

It would make even more sense if "by increasing..." was enclosed with commas. Is "by increasing..." actually modifies "hopes" so to show that it modifies previous verb we put a comma there?

Is this similar situation to "and" + VERB-ING modifier placement of commas to refer to the 1st part or the 2nd part of the sentence modifying.

Thank you
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Jun 2019, 07:39
EducationAisle

Here are the rules I have in my notes for AND + COMMA + VERB-ING. The rules I specified here don't seem to copy 100% what happens in the OG example:

 CONJUNCTION + COMMA + VERBing implies that the present participle refers to the subject of the preceding clause.

Ex - ...the executives examine and, using the criteria, decide on a strategy.

Here verbs “examine” and “decide” are parallel. Verb-ing modifier “using” modifies preceding clause subject “executives.

 COMMA + CONJUNCTION + VERBing implies that the present participle refers to the subject of the FOLLOWING clause:

Ex - Defense attorneys have argued that their clients' misconduct stemmed from a reaction to something ingested, but in attributing criminal or delinquent behavior to some food allergy, the perpetrators...

In the sentence above -- an incorrect answer to SC79 in the OG12 -- the comma before but implies that attributing refers to the subject of the FOLLOWING clause: the perpetrators.
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 24 Jun 2019, 04:08
Brego wrote:
I don't agree with that "it has..." is a dependent clause marked by subordinating conjunction "that".

Actually the presence of that (used as a conjunction here) makes the portion after that, a dependent clause.

Quote:
This is the first time I ever see a question like this.

Perhaps, the following simple sentence would help:

Michael hopes that by working hard, he will be able to score well.

This is a completely valid sentence. Option E has a construct very similar to the above sentence.
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The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Aug 2019, 07:19
OptimusPrepJanielle wrote:
AbdurRakib wrote:
The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environmental fund revenues to $1.2 billion, that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has to use its profits and capital to pay those claims bit by bit, year by year.

A) that it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and no longer has
B) enough has been set aside with which environmental claims can be paid and it will have no longer
C) it has set aside enough for payment of environmental claims and thus no longer having
D) enough has been set aside to pay for environmental claims, thus no longer having
E) it has set aside enough to pay for environmental claims and will no longer have


Meaning: The company has increased revenues, has set aside enough funds and will not need to pay them bit by bit.
Coming to the options:

A: that is redundant here
B: not sure who has set aside the money
C: having is incorrect
D: Having is incorrect
E: Correct

Correct Option: E


Can someone explain why that is redundant here? Also, does it makes any difference of using comma before that?

EducationAisle wrote:
Brego wrote:
I don't agree with that "it has..." is a dependent clause marked by subordinating conjunction "that".

Actually the presence of that (used as a conjunction here) makes the portion after that, a dependent clause.

Quote:
This is the first time I ever see a question like this.

Perhaps, the following simple sentence would help:

Michael hopes that by working hard, he will be able to score well.

This is a completely valid sentence. Option E has a construct very similar to the above sentence.


Still don't understand the explanation saying "that is used as a conjuction making the portion after that a dependent clause". Can someone explain in not grammar terms lol? :lol:

Thanks,
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment  [#permalink]

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New post 11 Oct 2019, 23:42
hi,

EMPOWERgmatVerbal is D wrong because its passive?
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Re: The Life and Casualty Company hopes that by increasing its environment   [#permalink] 11 Oct 2019, 23:42

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