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02 Sep 2020, 07:11
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The number of patents granted to inventors by the United States Patent Office dropped from 56000 in 1971 to 45000 in 1978. Spending on research and development, which peaked at 3 percent of the gross national product (GNP) in 1964, was only 2.2 percent of the GNP in 1978. During this period, when United States percentage was steadily decreasing, West Germany and Japan increased the percentage of their GNP’s spent on research and development to 3.2 percent and 1.6 percent, respectively.
Since it says that US in the period from 1964 to 1978 reduced its GDP percentage on RD from 3 to 2.2 and during this period, the percentage was steadily decreasing, we could confidently conclude that RD always accounted for more than 2.2 percent of GDP during the 1964 - 1971 period
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information above?
(A) There is direct relationship between the size of a nation’s GNP and the number of inventions it produces. No information provided in the argument could be used to support this conclusion
(B) Japan and Germany spent more money on research and development in 1978 than did the United States. We only have information about the percentage, not the actual amount of money
(C) The amount of money a nation spends on research and development is directly related to the number of inventions patented in that nation. Again, no info in the argument to support this claim
(D) Between 1964 and 1978 the United States consistently spent a larger percentage of its GNP on research and development than did Japan. Oh yes. While US spent more than 2.2 percent between 1964 and 1978, Japan spent at most 1.6 percent during the same period
(E) Both West Germany and Japan will soon surpass the United States in the number of patents granted to inventors. The two countries, Japan and Germany, started to spend more during the period 1964 - 1971, but no info about later period is available, therefore it is not possible to draw conclusion about how the money would be spent in following years. Also, no direct correlation could be drawn between amount of money spent and number of patent granted
Since it says that US in the period from 1964 to 1978 reduced its GDP percentage on RD from 3 to 2.2 and during this period, the percentage was steadily decreasing, we could confidently conclude that RD always accounted for more than 2.2 percent of GDP during the 1964 - 1971 period
Which of the following conclusions is best supported by the information above?
(A) There is direct relationship between the size of a nation’s GNP and the number of inventions it produces. No information provided in the argument could be used to support this conclusion
(B) Japan and Germany spent more money on research and development in 1978 than did the United States. We only have information about the percentage, not the actual amount of money
(C) The amount of money a nation spends on research and development is directly related to the number of inventions patented in that nation. Again, no info in the argument to support this claim
(D) Between 1964 and 1978 the United States consistently spent a larger percentage of its GNP on research and development than did Japan. Oh yes. While US spent more than 2.2 percent between 1964 and 1978, Japan spent at most 1.6 percent during the same period
(E) Both West Germany and Japan will soon surpass the United States in the number of patents granted to inventors. The two countries, Japan and Germany, started to spend more during the period 1964 - 1971, but no info about later period is available, therefore it is not possible to draw conclusion about how the money would be spent in following years. Also, no direct correlation could be drawn between amount of money spent and number of patent granted
05 Oct 2020, 09:43
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OFFICIAL GMAT EXPLANATION
From 1964 to 1978, spending on research and development never fell below 2.2 percent of the GNP in the United States and never rose above 1.6 percent in Japan. Therefore choice D follows from the information given and is the best answer.
Since no information is provided about the size of the GNP of any of the countries mentioned, neither choice A nor choice B is supported. The amount of information given about numbers of patents granted is insufficient to establish any general relation between spending and numbers of patents, so choice C is unsupported; and given that there is no information about the number of inventions patented in Japan and West Germany, choice E is not supported either.
From 1964 to 1978, spending on research and development never fell below 2.2 percent of the GNP in the United States and never rose above 1.6 percent in Japan. Therefore choice D follows from the information given and is the best answer.
Since no information is provided about the size of the GNP of any of the countries mentioned, neither choice A nor choice B is supported. The amount of information given about numbers of patents granted is insufficient to establish any general relation between spending and numbers of patents, so choice C is unsupported; and given that there is no information about the number of inventions patented in Japan and West Germany, choice E is not supported either.
29 Dec 2025, 13:49
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Greetings Karishma,
The statement "From 1964 to 1978, US decreased its % of GNP spending on R & D from 3% to 2.2%." Does not specify 2.2% as being the lowest % of GNP spending in the range of the given years. Can we fairly assume that the US consistently, YoY, had a larger % of GNP allocated to RnD when we are not explicitly told 2.2% is the lowest this percentage has been?
Assuming that RND as a % of GNP dropped to 1.5% in 1970 for instance, before rising back to 2.2% in 1978 would not conflict with the excerpt.
Please let me know if there is a fault in my reasoning. Looking forward to your response!
The statement "From 1964 to 1978, US decreased its % of GNP spending on R & D from 3% to 2.2%." Does not specify 2.2% as being the lowest % of GNP spending in the range of the given years. Can we fairly assume that the US consistently, YoY, had a larger % of GNP allocated to RnD when we are not explicitly told 2.2% is the lowest this percentage has been?
Assuming that RND as a % of GNP dropped to 1.5% in 1970 for instance, before rising back to 2.2% in 1978 would not conflict with the excerpt.
Please let me know if there is a fault in my reasoning. Looking forward to your response!
KarishmaB
