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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
The passage suggests that the author of the passage
believes which of the following?

(A) The predominance of individualist feminism in
English-speaking countries is a historical
phenomenon, the causes of which have not yet
been investigated.
-- The passage states:
Because the concept of individual rights was already well
established in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition,
individualist feminism came to predominate in English-
speaking countries.


(B) The individualist and relational feminist views are
irreconcilable, given their theoretical differences
concerning the foundations of society.

The passage states:
Before the late nineteenth century, these views
coexisted within the feminist movement, often within
the writings of the same individual.

I guess (B) is not true.


(C) A consensus concerning the direction of future
feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given
the awareness among feminists of the need for
cooperation among women.

(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse
arguments predicated on differences between the
sexes to argue that the existing social system
should be maintained.
The passage states this about relational, not individual feminism:
Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because
they underline women’s physiological and psychological
distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political
adversaries and used to endorse male privilege.



(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical
framework for contemporary feminist politics, but
individualist feminism could contribute much
toward refining and strengthening modern feminist
thought.

From this info, two choices look good. (C) and (E).
I think (E) is incorrect because individualist feminism contributes to feminist politics. (The opposite is mentioned in the choice).

I would go for (C) by POE. What is the OA?
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
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The answer is between D and E. I am going for D.



serf87 wrote:
The passage suggests that the author of the passage
believes which of the following?

(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse
arguments predicated on differences between the
sexes
to argue that the existing social system
should be maintained.

Lines 40/41 give this information: Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because they underline women’s physiological and psychological distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political adversaries and used to endorse male privilege. It does not matter that the arguments are put forth by relational feminists and not individual feminists.. the important part is political adversaries are misusing those arguments

(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical
framework
for contemporary feminist politics, but
individualist feminism could contribute much
toward refining and strengthening modern feminist
thought.

E is basically saying the author supports relational feminists and a few points of individual feminists are good.
Lines 46/47 give this information: If the individualist framework, with its claim for women’s autonomy, could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns of relational feminists, a more fruitful model for contemporary feminist politics could emerge.
E is very cleverly twisting this statement into saying that the author likes relational feminism which is just not true.


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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
I believe the answer is E.

The only place where I actually see the authors opinion is at the end:

If the individu-alist framework, with its claim for women’s autonomy,
could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns
of relational feminists, a more fruitful model for con-
(50) temporary feminist politics could emerge.

During the rest of the passage the author is just stating facts and does not really accert and opinion.

This to me says that the author feels that there are good points from both the contrasting sides.

The answer that ressembles that the most is E.
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
Hi OptimusPrimea1,
I am not too sure whether you have given the exam as of now or not.. but for future references.. here are my 2 cents for discarding option B.. although I also got deceived by this one..
Reason 1 - Predict the answer since it is a Inference based, which is too generic. The answer must lies somewhere in the Main Idea. The Author has not taken any stance regarding any of the frameworks, rather the author believes that a theory(idea) which can be a combination of both Relational and Individual, is possible. You may refer to the last line of the Passage. So, the views actually are not irreconcilable.
Reason 2- keyword-> "Foundations of Society......".. I am not too sure that I have read such words in the passage.. I would rather refrain myself opting for this answer till I reject all other options. hope this makes sense.
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
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Question 90 is a detail question. 1920 is mentioned in the second paragraph.
You have to read the second paragraph while answering the question.
A - nowhere does the paragraph talk about intellectual issues. Also, this option makes a comparison between importance of politics and intellectual issues to feminists. Nowhere in the paragraph do we see such a comparison.
B - No mention of political parties in the 2nd paragraph. Individualist feminism became more prevalent does not mean that it was adopted by political parties.
C - We know that this is not true. "the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcilable."
D - The 2nd paragraph does not mention anything about economic systems. Nowhere in the paragraph does the author mention that individualist feminists moderated their tones. Look at the 2nd sentence of the 3rd paragraph - But the individualist approach, by attacking gender roles, denying the significance of physiological difference, and damning existing familial institutions as hopelessly patriarchal, has often simply treated as irrelevant the family roles important to many women.
E - Correct answer. Look at this sentence - "the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcilable." and this sentence in the 3rd paragraph - "If the individualist framework, with its claim for women’s autonomy, could be harmonized ". The author would not have mentioned them if they attempted to unite the two approaches.
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
1. The author of the passage alludes to the well-established nature of the concept of individual rights in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition in order to

(A) illustrate the influence of individualist feminist thought on more general intellectual trends in English history
nothing about ' intellectual trend' is mentioned.

(B) argue that feminism was already a part of the larger Anglo-Saxon intellectual tradition, even though this has often gone unnoticed by critics of women’s emancipation
nothing mentioned about ' going unnoticed ....' hence half part is correct and other half is wrong

(C) explain the decline in individualist thinking among feminists in non-English-speaking countries
nothing mentioned about declining in non eng countries. out of scope

(D) help account for an increasing shift toward individualist feminism among feminists in English-speaking countries
correct. it dicuss the rising of individualist thinking in eng speaking countries.

(E) account for the philosophical differences between individualist and relational feminists in English-speaking countries
though difference exits, this point is not related to the difference. hence not a point, we are looking for.

q2.

The passage suggests that the author of the passage believes which of the following?

(A) The predominance of individualist feminism in English-speaking countries is a historical phenomenon, the causes of which have not yet been investigated.
wrong. reasons of rising of IF in eng speaking countries are clearly mentioned.

(B) The individualist and relational feminist views are irreconcilable, given their theoretical differences concerning the foundations of society.
differences are not about ' society' rather ' women'. 50% correct.

(C) A consensus concerning the direction of future feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given the awareness among feminists of the need for cooperation among women.
conclusion was about combining the views for better of women. not about ' direction of feminist '.

(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse arguments predicated on differences between the sexes to argue that the existing social system should be maintained.
this is what discussed.

(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical framework for contemporary feminist politics, but individualist feminism could contribute much toward refining and strengthening modern feminist thought.
nothing abt who is best !. out of scope
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
GMATNinja GMATNinjaTwo

2. The passage suggests that the author of the passage believes which of the following?


Please guide me if I'm wrong..

Between C & E-

Last line of last para says-"If the individualist framework, with its claim for women's autonomy, could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns of relational feminists, a more fruitful model for contemporary feminist politics could emerge"

Option C says-" A consensus concerning the direction of future feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given the awareness among feminists of the need for cooperation among women."

What I inferred is that the author is optimistic regarding new feministic policy(which is blend of both).

Option E says-"Relational feminism provides the best theoretical framework for contemporary feminist politics, but individualist feminism could contribute much toward refining and strengthening modern feminist thought."

Which I think is distortion of last line, as the author says the new feminist thought which he hopes may soon emerge is fruitful for contemp. pol., whereas the option says rel. fem. provides framework for contemp. pol. & Ind. fem. is refining & bla..bla.. is not mentioned in the passage.
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
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WhoIsTheAuthor wrote:
GMATNinja GMATNinjaTwo

2. The passage suggests that the author of the passage believes which of the following?


Please guide me if I'm wrong..

Between C & E-

Last line of last para says-"If the individualist framework, with its claim for women's autonomy, could be harmonized with the family-oriented concerns of relational feminists, a more fruitful model for contemporary feminist politics could emerge"

Option C says-" A consensus concerning the direction of future feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given the awareness among feminists of the need for cooperation among women."

What I inferred is that the author is optimistic regarding new feministic policy(which is blend of both).

Option E says-"Relational feminism provides the best theoretical framework for contemporary feminist politics, but individualist feminism could contribute much toward refining and strengthening modern feminist thought."

Which I think is distortion of last line, as the author says the new feminist thought which he hopes may soon emerge is fruitful for contemp. pol., whereas the option says rel. fem. provides framework for contemp. pol. & Ind. fem. is refining & bla..bla.. is not mentioned in the passage.

You've correctly identified the piece of (C) that helps us eliminate that answer choice. Does saying in the passage that something could occur mean that the author believes it probably will occur?

Consider this example: I could stop eating doughnuts, which would be good for my health. Stating this fact, and even being optimistic about the potential health benefits of giving them up, doesn't mean I probably will stop eating doughnuts -- maybe I really love doughnuts. Maybe it's a family tradition to eat doughnuts every Sunday, and that is more important to me than the health benefits of giving them up. (Mmm... doughnuts. :tongue_opt2)

Similarly, the author saying that the two forms of feminism could merge with one another to create a new model doesn't mean that the author believes this probably will happen. The author is optimistic that IF this did come to pass, the result could be a "more fruitful model for contemporary feminist politics." That is different than being optimistic that the event actually will come to pass.

(C) is out for question #2.

For (E), the details in the answer choice do not align well with the information in the passage. In that last sentence, the author argues that the "individualist framework" could be harmonized with "the family-oriented concerns of relational feminists" to produce a more fruitful feminist model.

(E), on the other hand, states that "relational feminism provides the best theoretical framework for contemporary feminist politics."

This statement is not supported by the passage, so we cannot say that the author would agree with it. (E) is out.

Take another look at (D):
Quote:
(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse arguments predicated on differences between the sexes to argue that the existing social system should be maintained.

This is essentially a restatement of the first sentence of the last paragraph in the passage:
Quote:
Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because they underline women’s physiological and psychological distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political adversaries and used to endorse male privilege.

(D) is the correct answer for question #2.

I hope that helps!
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
Answered all the questions correct but took 13 mins to read and answer the RC

GMATNinja sir, please help me on timing aspect !!
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
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Can someone explain why answer to question no. 5 is B and not C ?
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
eyunni wrote:
The passage suggests that the author of the passage
believes which of the following?

(A) The predominance of individualist feminism in
English-speaking countries is a historical
phenomenon, the causes of which have not yet
been investigated.
-- The passage states:
Because the concept of individual rights was already well
established in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition,
individualist feminism came to predominate in English-
speaking countries.


(B) The individualist and relational feminist views are
irreconcilable, given their theoretical differences
concerning the foundations of society.

The passage states:
Before the late nineteenth century, these views
coexisted within the feminist movement, often within
the writings of the same individual.

I guess (B) is not true.


(C) A consensus concerning the direction of future
feminist politics will probably soon emerge, given
the awareness among feminists of the need for
cooperation among women.

(D) Political adversaries of feminism often misuse
arguments predicated on differences between the
sexes to argue that the existing social system
should be maintained.
The passage states this about relational, not individual feminism:
Relational arguments have a major pitfall: because
they underline women’s physiological and psychological
distinctiveness, they are often appropriated by political
adversaries and used to endorse male privilege.



(E) Relational feminism provides the best theoretical
framework for contemporary feminist politics, but
individualist feminism could contribute much
toward refining and strengthening modern feminist
thought.

From this info, two choices look good. (C) and (E).
I think (E) is incorrect because individualist feminism contributes to feminist politics. (The opposite is mentioned in the choice).

I would go for (C) by POE. What is the OA?


Even I think the answer should be C and not B for the question below:
5. According to the author, which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?

(A) Individualist feminist arguments were not found in the thought or writing of non-English-speaking feminists.
(B) Individualist feminism was a strain in feminist thought, but another strain, relational feminism, predominated.
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.
(D) The predominant view among feminists held that the welfare of women was ultimately less important than the welfare of children.
(E) The predominant view among feminists held that the sexes should receive equal treatment under the law.

As the passage says:
"Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. "

Can someone please help with this?
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agar123 wrote:
Even I think the answer should be C and not B for the question below:
5. According to the author, which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?

(A) Individualist feminist arguments were not found in the thought or writing of non-English-speaking feminists.
(B) Individualist feminism was a strain in feminist thought, but another strain, relational feminism, predominated.
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.
(D) The predominant view among feminists held that the welfare of women was ultimately less important than the welfare of children.
(E) The predominant view among feminists held that the sexes should receive equal treatment under the law.

As the passage says:
"Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. "

Can someone please help with this?

Let's continue reading beyond the line that you've quoted:

Quote:
Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. Between 1890 and 1920, however, relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought, and which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States.

(B) is the correct choice because the author is quite explicit in telling us that relational feminism had been the dominant strain in feminist thought before 1890.

Now, let's take another look at choice (C):

Quote:
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.

First off, the author's statement that relational feminism "had been the dominant strain" directly contradicts this answer choice, which is sufficient reason for us to eliminate it.

And to address your reading of the passage, "coexist" does not have the same meaning as "being equally prevalent." If two strains of thought coexist, then they simply both exist at the same time or same place. If two strains of thought are equally prevalent, then they not only coexist, but also are equally distributed in terms of their acceptance and influence. So the author's statement at the start of the second paragraph doesn't quite line up with the meaning of answer choice (C).

I hope this helps clarify why we keep (B) while eliminating (C).
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
GMATNinja wrote:
agar123 wrote:
Even I think the answer should be C and not B for the question below:
5. According to the author, which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?

(A) Individualist feminist arguments were not found in the thought or writing of non-English-speaking feminists.
(B) Individualist feminism was a strain in feminist thought, but another strain, relational feminism, predominated.
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.
(D) The predominant view among feminists held that the welfare of women was ultimately less important than the welfare of children.
(E) The predominant view among feminists held that the sexes should receive equal treatment under the law.

As the passage says:
"Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. "

Can someone please help with this?

Let's continue reading beyond the line that you've quoted:

Quote:
Before the late nineteenth century, these views coexisted within the feminist movement, often within the writings of the same individual. Between 1890 and 1920, however, relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought, and which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States.

(B) is the correct choice because the author is quite explicit in telling us that relational feminism had been the dominant strain in feminist thought before 1890.

Now, let's take another look at choice (C):

Quote:
(C) Relational and individualist approaches were equally prevalent in feminist thought and writing.

First off, the author's statement that relational feminism "had been the dominant strain" directly contradicts this answer choice, which is sufficient reason for us to eliminate it.

And to address your reading of the passage, "coexist" does not have the same meaning as "being equally prevalent." If two strains of thought coexist, then they simply both exist at the same time or same place. If two strains of thought are equally prevalent, then they not only coexist, but also are equally distributed in terms of their acceptance and influence. So the author's statement at the start of the second paragraph doesn't quite line up with the meaning of answer choice (C).

I hope this helps clarify why we keep (B) while eliminating (C).



Hello GMATNinja
The statement which says relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought is particularly for years between 1890 and 1920. And the question specifically asks for which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?

Please comment.
Thanks in advance.
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aadityalohia95 wrote:
Hello GMATNinja
The statement which says relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought is particularly for years between 1890 and 1920. And the question specifically asks for which of the following was true of feminist thought in Western societies before 1890?

Please comment.
Thanks in advance.

Here's that full line again:

    Between 1890 and 1920, however, relational feminism, which had been the dominant strain in feminist thought, and which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States.

The use of the past perfect tense ("had been," in this case) sets up a specific timeline: there must be a continuous action or state of being in the past, which is then cut off by another event in the past.

So, in this case, relational feminism had been the dominant strain in feminist thought. Then, between 1890 and 1920, it lost ground in England and the United States.

From this, we know that relational feminism was the dominant strain of feminist thought before 1890. (B) is the correct answer to question 5.

If you want more information about the past perfect tense, this video is a good place to start. Don't you love it when the worlds of reading comprehension and sentence correction collide? :|

I hope that helps!
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
Hi,
Could anyone explain how in the 6th question option E, we know that there was no attempt unite the individualist and relational thoughts?, there might have been attempts which failed right?
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Re: Two modes of argumentation have been used on behalf of women’s emancip [#permalink]
SanjaySrini wrote:
Hi,
Could anyone explain how in the 6th question option E, we know that there was no attempt unite the individualist and relational thoughts?, there might have been attempts which failed right?



Quote:
6. The author implies that which of the following was true of most feminist thinkers in England and the United States after 1920?


Question= most feminist thinkers ( Individualist feminists and Relational feminists) > Individualist feminists in England and US
Pre-thinking: I need to find either option based on both feminists or something strongly about individualist feminists.

which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States.
>>Relational feminists were not in majority

Because the concept of individual rights was already well established in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition, individualist feminism came to predominate in English-speaking countries.
At the same time, the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcilable.
What time ? = between 1890-1920s. So something that started during this period might have had continued.

Individualist feminists began to advocate a totally gender-blind system with equal rights for all.
Relational feminists, while agreeing that equal educational and economic opportunities outside the home should be available for all wome
n,
All this was happening at the same time.( 1890-1920) . Since no specific information is given after 1920, whatever was started during this period seemed to continue



(A) They were less concerned with politics than with intellectual issues.
can't find any such relevant information
(B) They began to reach a broader audience and their programs began to be adopted by mainstream political parties.
who they? What happened after 1920 : whether they reached broader audience? maybe
adopted by political parties?- can keep on hold for a while unless see better option
(C) They called repeatedly for international cooperation among women’s groups to achieve their goals.
Again, Nothing is mentioned as such. I can't infer
(D) They moderated their initial criticism of the economic systems that characterized their societies.
Who they? Relational feminists criticized but they were not in majority in England and USA
(E) They did not attempt to unite the two different feminist approaches in their thought
They = both
seems not to reconcile/
If something was reconciled in 1890-1920s , it might have continued for sometime even after that period

Between B and E, I can find E directly from the information given. but I need to guess about B and can be argued, so E would be a better option.

GMATNinja: Please share your viewpoints.
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Question 6


mSKR wrote:
SanjaySrini wrote:
Hi,
Could anyone explain how in the 6th question option E, we know that there was no attempt unite the individualist and relational thoughts?, there might have been attempts which failed right?



Quote:
6. The author implies that which of the following was true of most feminist thinkers in England and the United States after 1920?


Question= most feminist thinkers ( Individualist feminists and Relational feminists) > Individualist feminists in England and US
Pre-thinking: I need to find either option based on both feminists or something strongly about individualist feminists.

which still predominates among European and non-Western feminists, lost ground in England and the United States.
>>Relational feminists were not in majority

Because the concept of individual rights was already well established in the Anglo-Saxon legal and political tradition, individualist feminism came to predominate in English-speaking countries.
At the same time, the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcilable.
What time ? = between 1890-1920s. So something that started during this period might have had continued.

Individualist feminists began to advocate a totally gender-blind system with equal rights for all.
Relational feminists, while agreeing that equal educational and economic opportunities outside the home should be available for all wome
n,
All this was happening at the same time.( 1890-1920) . Since no specific information is given after 1920, whatever was started during this period seemed to continue



(A) They were less concerned with politics than with intellectual issues.
can't find any such relevant information
(B) They began to reach a broader audience and their programs began to be adopted by mainstream political parties.
who they? What happened after 1920 : whether they reached broader audience? maybe
adopted by political parties?- can keep on hold for a while unless see better option
(C) They called repeatedly for international cooperation among women’s groups to achieve their goals.
Again, Nothing is mentioned as such. I can't infer
(D) They moderated their initial criticism of the economic systems that characterized their societies.
Who they? Relational feminists criticized but they were not in majority in England and USA
(E) They did not attempt to unite the two different feminist approaches in their thought
They = both
seems not to reconcile/
If something was reconciled in 1890-1920s , it might have continued for sometime even after that period

Between B and E, I can find E directly from the information given. but I need to guess about B and can be argued, so E would be a better option.

GMATNinja: Please share your viewpoints.

The problem with (B) is that the question asks for an answer choice that is implied by the author. This means that the best answer choice will have at least some basis in the passage. The author never mentions the reach and political impact of English and American feminists after the 1920s, so (B) is not implied by the author.

On the other hand, the author notes that “the goals of the two approaches began to seem increasingly irreconcilable.” And he/she concludes the passage by recommending that the two approaches be harmonized. This implies that the English and American feminists post-1920 did not attempt to unite the two approaches. So, (E) is the best answer choice.

I hope that helps!
GMAT Club Bot
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