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# Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan

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Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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24 May 2010, 00:32
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Hi,

I have some doubts on the usage of HAVE BEEN:

1. The recent amendments to the rules governing professional baseball, like those governing professional gymnastics, were motivated by a desire to make the sport more interesting to watch.
A)
B) those to the rules governing professional gymnastics, were motivated
C) those to the rules which govern professional gymnastics, were motivated
D) the amendments to the rules governing professional gymnastics, have been motivated
E) the amendments governing professional gymnastics, were being motivated

OA is B. When I googled this, I found that:
Here in D, HAVE BEEN indicates that the amendments are still happening. So, D is incorrect.

2. Scientists are currently trying to determine the extent to which tectonic plates have been shifted from their previous positions by earthquakes and other similar phenomena.

A. to which tectonic plates have been shifted
B. to which tectonic plates have shifted
C. of the shift of tectonic plates
D. of tectonic plate shifting
E. that tectonic plates have been shifted

OA is A.
I am confused why different answers for same usage and same passive strutures.

Source - Kaplan.
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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24 May 2010, 13:59
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Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.
_________________

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http://www.kaptest.com/GMAT

Prepare with Kaplan and save $150 on a course! Kaplan Reviews Director Joined: 25 Aug 2007 Posts: 943 WE 1: 3.5 yrs IT WE 2: 2.5 yrs Retail chain Followers: 77 Kudos [?]: 1327 [0], given: 40 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 25 May 2010, 04:53 Thanks Eli, This (2) is new funda to me. Can you please provide some more examples for (2) case? KapTeacherEli wrote: Hi ykaiim, In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct. _________________ Want to improve your CR: http://gmatclub.com/forum/cr-methods-an-approach-to-find-the-best-answers-93146.html Tricky Quant problems: http://gmatclub.com/forum/50-tricky-questions-92834.html Important Grammer Fundamentals: http://gmatclub.com/forum/key-fundamentals-of-grammer-our-crucial-learnings-on-sc-93659.html Kaplan GMAT Instructor Joined: 25 Aug 2009 Posts: 644 Location: Cambridge, MA Followers: 84 Kudos [?]: 286 [5] , given: 2 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 25 May 2010, 07:42 5 This post received KUDOS Expert's post 1 This post was BOOKMARKED I have had three bikes. I had one when I was twelve. Billy has already eaten. He ate lunch this afternoon. Our nation has had a number of crisis points threatening its existence. The first was the Civil War. In each of the first sentences, we have no time cues; the sentence gives no indication when Billy ate lunch, I owned a bike, or the nation faced a crisis. Thus, we use the present perfect. In each of the second sentences, we have a time cue: 'twelve,' 'this afternoon', 'the Civil War'. Thus, we use the simple past. _________________ Eli Meyer Kaplan Teacher http://www.kaptest.com/GMAT Prepare with Kaplan and save$150 on a course!

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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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12 Jun 2010, 10:26
1
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hey Eli

Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence.

tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes.

tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own?

I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions.

KapTeacherEli wrote:
Hi ykaiim,

In the first problem, 'have been' isn't a matter of continuing vs. not continuing; it's a matter of specified time versus unspecified time. In the first sentence, we are given a time cue to when they were motivated: the change was "recent," at the time of the amendments. Because we know when the even happens, even if not the exact time, the simple past is correct

In the second, we have no time cues whatsoever; we don't know if the earthquakes happened yesterday or 100 million years ago. When an English sentences discusses events in the past without specifying the time frame, the present perfect 'have/has [participle]' tense is correct.

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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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12 Jun 2010, 21:43
nusmavrik wrote:
hey Eli

Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence.

tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes.

tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own?

I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions.
Hi nusmavrik,

You're absolutely correct that the 'have been shifted by' and 'have shifted' are different tenses. However, this has nothing to do with the present perfect. In both cases, the 'have' correctly indicates an event that happens in the past, but whose time frame is unspecified. The difference between the other two is the difference between the active voice (plates shifted) and the passive (plates were shifted). This is a key, but independent, grammar concept.
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Prepare with Kaplan and save $150 on a course! Kaplan Reviews Director Status: Impossible is not a fact. It's an opinion. It's a dare. Impossible is nothing. Affiliations: University of Chicago Booth School of Business Joined: 26 Nov 2009 Posts: 961 Location: Singapore Followers: 24 Kudos [?]: 805 [0], given: 36 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 12 Jun 2010, 23:59 hey Eli Since we are talking about "present perfect", I will like to know why is "having been" almost always wrong on gmat. Am I making a wrong assumption? Thanks mavrik KapTeacherEli wrote: nusmavrik wrote: hey Eli Sorry to butt in. I found this topic interesting. In the second, "have shifted" ---> changes the meaning of the sentence. tectonic plates have been shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> means that plates do not shift on their own. They were shifted by earthquakes. tectonic plates have shifted by earthquakes and other similar phenomena. ---> This is illogical. How can plates shift on their own? I may be wrong, but I think that's a fair difference between the two expressions. Hi nusmavrik, You're absolutely correct that the 'have been shifted by' and 'have shifted' are different tenses. However, this has nothing to do with the present perfect. In both cases, the 'have' correctly indicates an event that happens in the past, but whose time frame is unspecified. The difference between the other two is the difference between the active voice (plates shifted) and the passive (plates were shifted). This is a key, but independent, grammar concept. _________________ Please press kudos if you like my post. Manager Joined: 25 Dec 2009 Posts: 66 Followers: 4 Kudos [?]: 37 [0], given: 2 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 16 Jun 2010, 02:07 having is progressive and been is progressive, they cant be used together Manager Joined: 25 Dec 2009 Posts: 66 Followers: 4 Kudos [?]: 37 [0], given: 2 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 16 Jun 2010, 02:16 421. In theory, international civil servants at the United Nations are prohibited from continuing to draw salaries from their own governments; in practice, however, some governments merely substitute living allowances for their employees’ paychecks, assigned by them to the United Nations. (A) for their employees’ paychecks, assigned by them (B) for the paychecks of their employees who have been assigned (C) for the paychecks of their employees, having been assigned (D) in place of their employees’ paychecks, for those of them assigned (E) in place of the paychecks of their employees to have been assigned by them the answer is clearly B. but can u explain me y 'have been' is used here? Last edited by roshanaslam on 16 Jun 2010, 02:46, edited 1 time in total. Kaplan GMAT Instructor Joined: 25 Aug 2009 Posts: 644 Location: Cambridge, MA Followers: 84 Kudos [?]: 286 [3] , given: 2 Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink] ### Show Tags 16 Jun 2010, 23:52 3 This post received KUDOS Expert's post ONce again, it's the passive voice; the base verb is "were assigned by the UN", a sentence in which the subject is employees but the actor is the UN, which makes the assignments. The 'have' tense indicates the time frame (unspecified past), and since we are now using the perfect tense, 'were' becomes the participle 'been'. _________________ Eli Meyer Kaplan Teacher http://www.kaptest.com/GMAT Prepare with Kaplan and save$150 on a course!

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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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17 Jun 2010, 02:54
thanks a lot
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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10 Jul 2011, 01:33
Dear Eli,
kudos to you for demystifying perfect tense.

In the following sentence, the usage of "have been having" is correct as per a grammar site (englishpage).

Matt and Sarah have been having some difficulties in their relationship lately, so they have been going to a marriage counselor. I hope they work everything out.

but it is also given that:

REMEMBER Non-Continuous Verbs/ Mixed Verbs
It is important to remember that Non-Continuous Verbs cannot be used in any continuous tenses. Also, certain non-continuous meanings for Mixed Verbs cannot be used in continuous tenses. Instead of using Present Perfect Continuous with these verbs, you must use Present Perfect.

Examples:

Sam has been having his car for two years. Not Correct
Sam has had his car for two years. Correct

by this logic, isn't it better to say :

Matt and Sarah have had some difficulties in their relationship lately, so they have been going to a marriage counselor.

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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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08 Sep 2012, 08:12
Hi Eli, can you please look at thr problem below

Fossils of the arm of a sloth found in Puerto Rico in
1991. and dated at 34 million years old, made it the
earliest known mammal of
the Greater Antilles Islands.
(A) sloth found in Puerto Rico in 1991, and dated at
34 million years old, made it the earliest known
mammal of
(B) sloth, that they found in Puerto Rico in 1991, has
been dated at 34 million years old, thus making
it the earliest mammal known on
(C) sloth that was found in Puerto Rico in 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, making this the
earliest known mammal of
(D) sloth, found in Puerto Rico in 1991, have been
dated at 34 million years old, making the sloth
the earliest known mammal on
(E) sloth which, found in Puerto Ricoin 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, made the sloth the
earliest known mammal of

The OA is D

now my question is, when I know the time when sloth was found I.e in 1991, why should I use had been here?
because as per your logic I can use had been only if I didnt know the time of finding of sloth..?? can someone help me with correct usage of had been/has been??
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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08 Sep 2012, 13:22
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Expert's post
nikhil007 wrote:
Hi Eli, can you please look at thr problem below

Fossils of the arm of a sloth found in Puerto Rico in
1991. and dated at 34 million years old, made it the
earliest known mammal of
the Greater Antilles Islands.
(A) sloth found in Puerto Rico in 1991, and dated at
34 million years old, made it the earliest known
mammal of
(B) sloth, that they found in Puerto Rico in 1991, has
been dated at 34 million years old, thus making
it the earliest mammal known on
(C) sloth that was found in Puerto Rico in 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, making this the
earliest known mammal of
(D) sloth, found in Puerto Rico in 1991, have been
dated at 34 million years old, making the sloth
the earliest known mammal on
(E) sloth which, found in Puerto Ricoin 1991, was
dated at 34 million years old, made the sloth the
earliest known mammal of

The OA is D

now my question is, when I know the time when sloth was found I.e in 1991, why should I use had been here?
because as per your logic I can use had been only if I didnt know the time of finding of sloth..?? can someone help me with correct usage of had been/has been??
"have been" is used for the dating process--we don't know when in the past the laboratory dating tests were completed!
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan [#permalink]

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05 Apr 2015, 10:23
Here you can find all the Information regarding Having + participle https://english.lingolia.com/en/grammar/sentences/participle-clauses
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Re: Usage of HAVE BEEN - Kaplan   [#permalink] 05 Apr 2015, 10:23
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