ziyuen
If b and c do not equal 0, is \(a = \frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\)?
(1) a is an integer such that \(a > 2\)
(2) b and c are both integers such that \(b > 1\) and \(c > 1\)
Dear
ziyuen,
I'm happy to help.

This is a clever question.
Statement #1 tells us about
a, but not about
b & c, so it's
not sufficient.
Statement #2 tells us about
b & c, but not about
a, so it's
not sufficient.
Combined statementWe know that
a is 3 or greater, because it's an integer greater than two.
We know b > 1 and c > 1. Since all of the numbers in these two inequalities are positive, we can take the reciprocal of both sides, which would reverse the order of the inequality.
Thus,
\(\frac{1}{b} < 1\) and \(\frac{1}{c} < 1\)
Now, add those two inequalities
\(\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c} < 2\)
Since
a is 3 or greater, and the sum on the right side is always less than 2, we know for a fact that the two sides NEVER can be equal. Thus, we can give a definitive NO answer to the prompt question.
We have to be careful here. Since we were able to give a definitive "NO" answer to the
prompt question, that means we had sufficient information to give answer the question. Thus, the answer to the
sufficiency question is, yes, the combined statements are
sufficient.
OA =
(C) Does all this make sense?
Mike