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Bunuel
A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. 1/60
B. 1/30
C. 1/20
D. 1/6
E. 1/3

total ways to select 3 cards from 6 ; 6*5*4 ; 120 ways
and possible set of consective cards ; (1,2,3) ; ( 2,3,4); ( 3,4,5); ( 4,5,6) ; 4
so P = 4/120 ; 1/30
OPTION B
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Bunuel
A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. 1/60
B. 1/30
C. 1/20
D. 1/6
E. 1/3

Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device
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Mck2023
Bunuel
A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. 1/60
B. 1/30
C. 1/20
D. 1/6
E. 1/3

Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device

Mck2023

Understand that permulation formula includes selection as well as arrangements

Total Outcomes = Permutation of 3 out of 6 digits = 6P3 = 6! / (6-3)! = 120

Favorable outcomes = {123} or {234} or {345} or {456} = 4 outcomes

Probability = 4/120 = 1/30

ANswer: Option B
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Bunuel
A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. 1/60
B. 1/30
C. 1/20
D. 1/6
E. 1/3

Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device

Mck2023

Understand that permulation formula includes selection as well as arrangements

Total Outcomes = Permutation of 3 out of 6 digits = 6P3 = 6! / (6-3)! = 120

Favorable outcomes = {123} or {234} or {345} or {456} = 4 outcomes

Probability = 4/120 = 1/30

ANswer: Option B

Hi GMATinsight
Thank you for the reply.

I am still not clear what in the question make us use permutation formula but nit the combination one?

Thank you!
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Bunuel
A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. 1/60
B. 1/30
C. 1/20
D. 1/6
E. 1/3

Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device

Mck2023

Understand that permulation formula includes selection as well as arrangements

Total Outcomes = Permutation of 3 out of 6 digits = 6P3 = 6! / (6-3)! = 120

Favorable outcomes = {123} or {234} or {345} or {456} = 4 outcomes

Probability = 4/120 = 1/30

ANswer: Option B

Hi GMATinsight
Thank you for the reply.

I am still not clear what in the question make us use permutation formula but nit the combination one?

Thank you!

Mck2023

Use Combination when you need to do ONLY SELECTION

Use Permutaton when you need to do SELECTION + ARRANGEMENT
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To select consecutive integers in increasing order, the possible sets are as follows:

{1, 2, 3} OR
{2, 3, 4} OR
{3, 4, 5} OR
{4, 5, 6}

Next, we note that the probability of selecting any of the 4 sets above is the same. So we can simply multiply the probability of 1 set by 4.

Selecting the 1st card is \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Selecting the 2nd card is \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Selecting the 3rd card is \(\frac{1}{4}\)

P = 4 x \(\frac{1}{6}\frac{1}{5}\frac{1}{4}\)
P = \(\frac{1}{30}\)

Hope it helps.
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To select consecutive integers in increasing order, the possible sets are as follows:

{1, 2, 3} OR
{2, 3, 4} OR
{3, 4, 5} OR
{4, 5, 6}

Next, we note that the probability of selecting any of the 4 sets above is the same. So we can simply multiply the probability of 1 set by 4.

Selecting the 1st card is \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Selecting the 2nd card is \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Selecting the 3rd card is \(\frac{1}{4}\)

P = 4 x \(\frac{1}{6}\frac{1}{5}\frac{1}{4}\)
P = \(\frac{1}{30}\)

Hope it helps.


Here then you have assumed that the order you have picked up the cards is also consecutive

Which is not the case mentioned in the question. The question says that the cards picked up line up in order afterwards.
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Mck2023
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Mck2023

Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device

Mck2023

Understand that permulation formula includes selection as well as arrangements

Total Outcomes = Permutation of 3 out of 6 digits = 6P3 = 6! / (6-3)! = 120

Favorable outcomes = {123} or {234} or {345} or {456} = 4 outcomes

Probability = 4/120 = 1/30

ANswer: Option B

Hi GMATinsight
Thank you for the reply.

I am still not clear what in the question make us use permutation formula but nit the combination one?

Thank you!

Permutation is used, when ORDER MATTERS.
In this question, we need to use PERMUTATION, because we need probability of cards to be in ascending order, after we draw first card.
e.g if first card drawn is 3, 2nd card should be 4 - not any other, So order matters. I hope you understood.
Total cases formed are thus 4 / 6p3 : 4/120 = 1/30

Combination is used when order doesn't matter and you have to just find total combination or ways of arrangement of anything.
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1st number from the has to be amongst {1,2,3,4}
Therefore probability of 1st number is 4/6.

2nd number has to be only one of the balance five numbers I.e. next consecutive number. Therefore probability of second number is 1/5

Likewise probability of third number will be 1/4.

So,final answer I.e. probability of three consecutive numbers among given six numbers in increasing order will be 4/6 * 1/5 * 1/4 = 1/30

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Cellchat
To select consecutive integers in increasing order, the possible sets are as follows:

{1, 2, 3} OR
{2, 3, 4} OR
{3, 4, 5} OR
{4, 5, 6}

Next, we note that the probability of selecting any of the 4 sets above is the same. So we can simply multiply the probability of 1 set by 4.

Selecting the 1st card is \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Selecting the 2nd card is \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Selecting the 3rd card is \(\frac{1}{4}\)

P = 4 x \(\frac{1}{6}\frac{1}{5}\frac{1}{4}\)
P = \(\frac{1}{30}\)

Hope it helps.


Here then you have assumed that the order you have picked up the cards is also consecutive

Which is not the case mentioned in the question. The question says that the cards picked up line up in order afterwards.
The question states "A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?"

You must pick the cards up in increasing order while at the same time pick consecutively.

There's 4 different ways you can do this, each of which has a probability of \(\frac{1}{120}\).
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The first card must be 1, 2, 3 or 4. This is 4/6.

The second card must be consecutive to the first card. 1/5.

The third card again must be consecutive to the second card. 1/4.

4/6 * 1/5 * 1/4 = 1/30

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DEN = Total possible outcomes =

1st card: 6 available cards

2nd card: 5 available cards

3rd card: 4 available cards

DEN = (6) (5) (4)


NUM = number of favorable outcomes = no of ways we can select the 3 cards and have them be in ascending order:

We can manually count out the favorable outcomes:

1-2-3
Or
2-3-4
Or
3-4-5
Or
4-5-6

4 favorable outcome.


Prob. = (4) / (6 * 5 * 4) =


1/30

Posted from my mobile device
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Bunuel
Official Solution:

A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected one by one from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. \(\frac{1}{60}\)
B. \(\frac{1}{30}\)
C. \(\frac{1}{20}\)
D. \(\frac{1}{6}\)
E. \(\frac{1}{3}\)


The number of ways to choose 3 numbers out of 6 when order matters is \(P^3_6=\frac{6!}{3!}=6*5*4=120\);

The number of ways to get 3 consecutive numbers in increasing order is 4: {1, 2, 3}, {2, 3, 4}, {3, 4, 5} and {4, 5, 6};

The probability is therefore, \(\frac{4}{120}=\frac{1}{30}\).


Answer: B
­Hi there! Bunuel

If the question did not mention consecutive numbers, just those in an increasing order, how would we go about that?
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Bunuel
Official Solution:

A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected one by one from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. \(\frac{1}{60}\)
B. \(\frac{1}{30}\)
C. \(\frac{1}{20}\)
D. \(\frac{1}{6}\)
E. \(\frac{1}{3}\)


The number of ways to choose 3 numbers out of 6 when order matters is \(P^3_6=\frac{6!}{3!}=6*5*4=120\);

The number of ways to get 3 consecutive numbers in increasing order is 4: {1, 2, 3}, {2, 3, 4}, {3, 4, 5} and {4, 5, 6};

The probability is therefore, \(\frac{4}{120}=\frac{1}{30}\).


Answer: B
­Hi there! Bunuel

If the question did not mention consecutive numbers, just those in an increasing order, how would we go about that?
­In this case, since three different numbers can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways, and only one of these arrangements is in ascending order, the answer would simply be 1/3! = 1/6.

Check out similar questions related to this concept below:

  1. https://gmatclub.com/forum/m37-376122.html (GMAT Club Tests)
  2. https://gmatclub.com/forum/a-deck-of-ca ... 21977.html (GMAT Club Tests)
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Hope it helps.­

20 favorable cases out of 120:
{1, 2, 3}
{1, 2, 4}
{1, 2, 5}
{1, 2, 6}
{1, 3, 4}
{1, 3, 5}
{1, 3, 6}
{1, 4, 5}
{1, 4, 6}
{1, 5, 6}

{2, 3, 4}
{2, 3, 5}
{2, 3, 6}
{2, 4, 5}
{2, 4, 6}
{2, 5, 6}

{3, 4, 5}
{3, 4, 6}
{3, 5, 6}

{4, 5, 6}­
­
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Hi Bunuel,

How could you come up w/ such a simple solution? I'm scratching my head and listing out all of the possible cases {123,124,125,....456} I guess I really don't understand the whole part of "since three different numbers can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways,"
Bunuel
Hoehenheim

Bunuel
Official Solution:

A deck of cards contains 6 cards numbered from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and to 6. If three cards are randomly selected one by one from the deck without replacement, what is the probability that the numbers on the cards are consecutive integers in increasing order?

A. \(\frac{1}{60}\)
B. \(\frac{1}{30}\)
C. \(\frac{1}{20}\)
D. \(\frac{1}{6}\)
E. \(\frac{1}{3}\)


The number of ways to choose 3 numbers out of 6 when order matters is \(P^3_6=\frac{6!}{3!}=6*5*4=120\);

The number of ways to get 3 consecutive numbers in increasing order is 4: {1, 2, 3}, {2, 3, 4}, {3, 4, 5} and {4, 5, 6};

The probability is therefore, \(\frac{4}{120}=\frac{1}{30}\).


Answer: B
­Hi there! Bunuel

If the question did not mention consecutive numbers, just those in an increasing order, how would we go about that?
­In this case, since three different numbers can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways, and only one of these arrangements is in ascending order, the answer would simply be 1/3! = 1/6.

Check out similar questions related to this concept below:

  1. https://gmatclub.com/forum/m37-376122.html (GMAT Club Tests)
  2. https://gmatclub.com/forum/a-deck-of-ca ... 21977.html (GMAT Club Tests)
  3. https://gmatclub.com/forum/m27-184482.html (GMAT Club Tests)
  4. https://gmatclub.com/forum/how-many-pos ... 55804.html (GMAT Club Tests)
  5. https://gmatclub.com/forum/how-many-5-d ... 20568.html
  6. https://gmatclub.com/forum/if-four-numb ... 95080.html
  7. https://gmatclub.com/forum/if-the-lette ... 02807.html
  8. https://gmatclub.com/forum/if-there-are ... 04654.html
  9. https://gmatclub.com/forum/how-many-int ... 80300.html

Hope it helps.­

20 favorable cases out of 120:
{1, 2, 3}
{1, 2, 4}
{1, 2, 5}
{1, 2, 6}
{1, 3, 4}
{1, 3, 5}
{1, 3, 6}
{1, 4, 5}
{1, 4, 6}
{1, 5, 6}

{2, 3, 4}
{2, 3, 5}
{2, 3, 6}
{2, 4, 5}
{2, 4, 6}
{2, 5, 6}

{3, 4, 5}
{3, 4, 6}
{3, 5, 6}

{4, 5, 6}­
­
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I used none instead went with probability. The xplanation is as below.

I can choose any number 1,2,3 & 4 inorder to get three consecutive increasing digits. Once I pick my number from this for the second digit there is only one choice out of 5 and then for third digit there is only 1 choice out of 4. so the equation will be 4/6 x 1/5 x 1/4 = 1/30.
Mck2023


Hi Bunuel
How do we know to use permutation not combination formula to answer this question?
Can you please put some lights!
Thank you!

Posted from my mobile device
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