sathyadev09
Great post mike. Two verbs referring to the same subject is one of the conditions that drives parallelism. That makes perfect sense.
I am curious to know how a sentence would look if 'they' in the sentence had to point to the physicists in a grammatically correct fashion?
For the passive voice : you mentioned that by using passive voice, we must use 'by' with the subject. Why is the use of 'by' for a subject grammatically wrong in this case? Does this apply to all cases in general?
Thanks & Regards
Sathya
Dear
Sathya,
First of all, in order for the "
they" to refer unambiguously to the "
tectonophysicists," the "
tectonophysicists" would have to appear closer to the pronoun, and the "
physical processes" would have to be moved somewhere else in the sentence. In other words, we would have to overhaul the entire sentence in order to create one in which the use of the pronoun would be OK. That's simply not worth the work. In practicing SC problems, you can find tons of examples in which pronouns are used correctly and many more in which pronouns are not used correctly. There's absolutely no reason to rewrite this sentence completely for an arbitrary exercise.
Also, this is a very important distinction. In passive structure, we indicate the "doer", the original subject, in a "by"-prepositional phrase. That is grammatically correct 100% of the time. It is grammatically correct in choice
(C) here. The problem is: the GMAT SC is not simply about grammar. Folks who focus exclusively on grammar totally miss the point of the GMAT SC. The issues of
Logic and
Rhetorical Construction are just as important as, if not more important than, grammar. For more on these, see:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/logical-pr ... orrection/https://magoosh.com/gmat/2013/rhetorical ... orrection/The passive structure that appears on wrong answers on the GMAT is often 100% grammatically correct, but rhetorically, it is no good: it is weak, indirect, and wishy-washy, not clear, direct, and powerful. Consider these two sentences.
(a)
The agreement of Hydromax with Perchlorin Industries was terminated by the CEO of Hydromax, and this termination cased the stocks of Perchlorin to decline in a sudden and rapid manner.
(b)
Hydromax's CEO terminated the agreement with Perchlorin Industries, causing Perchlorin's stocks to plummet.
The first sentence is 100% grammatically correct. If you are judging only on the basis of rules of grammar, that is a perfectly correct sentence. Of course, on the GMAT, the second could be an acceptable sentence, but the first would never stand a chance of being correct. The first one, while 100% grammatically correct, is a rhetorical nightmare: it is way too long, too wordy, too indirect, and too weak. By comparison, the second version is direct, crisp, and powerful. The different has absolutely nothing to do with the rules of grammar, because both are grammatically correct.
What I was saying was: in a passive situation in which we don't know, and don't care about, the doer, then that's a very natural situation in which the passive construction might be rhetorically acceptable.
The corporate agreement was terminated.
Simple and direct. We don't have a doer, and we don't need one.
The problem is: when the doer is known, then passive construction involves stuffing the doer into a "
by"-preposition. That's 100% grammatically correct, but it almost always makes the sentence longer, more indirect, and weaker. While grammatically correct, it usually produces a rhetorical loser. Not always, but usually. That's precisely why it's important to be suspicious of the passive voice. See:
https://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/active-vs- ... -the-gmat/Does all this make sense?
Mike