For the range 1 to n, inclusive; we need to pick n numbers in two of the following ways
- First: All n numbers are different
- Second: All n numbers are the same
Total number of ways that n numbers can be picked from 1 to n, inclusive, is \(n^n\); this is because each number can be picked in n ways
First: All n numbers are differentIf all the numbers are different, then the 1st number can be picked in n ways
The second can be picked in n-1 ways
The third in n-2 ways, and so on
This is nothing but n!
Probability = \(\frac{n!}{ Total}\) = \(\frac{n!}{n^n}\)
[equation 1]Second: All n numbers are the same Imagine you have the numbers 1,2,3 and you have to select 3 numbers from them such that all 3 are the same
You can do that by creating sets, it's either (1,1,1) or (2,2,2) or (3,3,3); thus, 3 ways
Total number of ways will be \(3^3\)
Similarly, if we have n numbers to choose from,
The probability that all the numbers are the same is \(\frac{n}{n^n}\)
[equation 2]Now we are told that
P(different) = 6*P(same)
Putting equations 1 and 2 in the above, we get,
\(n! = 6n\)
\((n-1)! = 6\)
\(n-1 = 3\)
[The only integer whose factorial value is 6, is 3]\(n=4\)
Answer B.