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for same selection,
the first person in "n" people will have n choices and rest will have 1 choice : n*1*1 ...
The total possible outcomes can be n*n*n* ..n so it will be basically n*=^n

so probability => n/n^n

now for different choices the cases will be n*(n-1) * (n-2)....1 so its basically n!
total possible cases remain same n^n
so probability will be n!/n^n

now we are given probability of different = 6 (same selection probablity)

n!/n^n=6 ( n/n^n)

(n-1)!= 6

we know factorial of 3 is 6 so n-1 should be 3 so n=4 (option B)
okay now check the option , only
Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


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To solve the problem, we compare the probability of everyone picking the same number with the probability of everyone picking different numbers using fractions.

For 3 people, the chance that all pick the same number is 1/3 × 1/3 × 1/3 = 1/27. The chance that all pick different numbers is 1/3 × 2/3 × 1/3 = 2/27. Since 2/27 is not six times 1/27, 3 is not the answer.

For 4 people, the chance that all pick the same number is 1/4 × 1/4 × 1/4 × 1/4 = 1/256. The chance that all pick different numbers is 1/4 × 3/4 × 2/4 × 1/4 = 6/256. Since 6/256 is exactly six times 1/256, the condition is satisfied. Therefore, the correct answer is 4.
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Interesting one. Spoiler: 4 is the answer.
Since we are using probability in the equation, we don't have to worry about the denominator or total number of cases.
Therefore,
=> Cases that all of them choose different numbers= 6 x the cases that all of them choose the same number
=> n!=6xn
=> (n-1)!=6
n=4.


Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


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Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


test case B :

If n = 4 , then the probability that all of the 4 persons would choose the same integer is = 1 x 1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/64.
If n = 4 than the probability that all of these 4 person would choose a different integer is = 1 x 3/4 x 2/4 x 1/4 = 6/64

=> the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number.

Answer B
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P(choose same number) = n/totalProb (Because n people can choose any 1 number from set of n numbers in n ways)
P(choose different number)= n!/totalProb
This is because choosing different numbers is same as all permutations of the numbers from 1 to n without repetition.

Given P(choose diff number) = 6*P(choose same number)
So, n!=6n. 4!=6*4 so B
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Total no. of ways that n people can select from numbers 1 to n = (n)^n
Total no. of ways that numbers will be different for each person = n!
Total no. of ways that numbers selected will be the same for everyone = n
By the given condition, n!/(n^n)=6 X n/(n^n)
so, n!=6n
this holds true for 4 (option B) only.
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from the info provided, we have:

n!/(n^n) = 6 x ((1/n)^n-1))
(n-1)! = 6

So n is 4

Answer: B
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Since the integers range from 1 to n, they must be different integers (no repeats are mentioned).
So, the answer is 6 (D)
Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


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So N people choosing random integers between 1 to n will be = n!

Similarly all n members choosing same number means = nc1

so as per the question :

n! = 6.nc1

After simplifying:
which gives us n=4.
Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


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(Choosing different) n!/n^n=6n/n^n (choosing same)
n!=6n
Thus n=4

AnsB
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all choose different numbers= n! ways (first person has n choices x second person has n-1 choices x....and so on)
all choose same number=n ways (selecting one number of n numbers, 1 or 2 or 3 or ....n.....so n ways)
total outcomes = x

based on the question, the equation becomes
n!/x = 6 n/x
n(n-1)! = 6n
(n-1)! = 6
so n-1 = 3
n = 4.


correct answer is 4
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I would approach this problem by testing for the numbers of the answer choices which fits the criteria: Starting with 3 we receive 1 * 2/3 * 1/3 = 2/9 probability of all 3 different results while the probability of all the same results is 1 * 1/3 * 1/3 = 1/9 --> A is wrong. Now switching over to 4 we can calculate the probability of all 4 different results to be 1 * 3/4 * 2/4 * 1/4 = 6/64 and the probability for 4 same results to be 1 * 1/4 * 1/4 * 1/4 = 1/64 --> B fits the criteria discussed, thus Answer B.

Regards,
Lucas
Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


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for the GMAT Club Olympics Competition

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Each person has n choices -> total choices = n^n

Probability all pick the same number:
There are n such outcomes (everyone picks 1, or 2, ..., up to n)
So: P(same) = n / n^n

Probability all pick different numbers:
That’s just the number of permutations of n numbers:
So:
P(different) = n! / n^n

P(different) = 6 * P(same)
n! / n^n = 6 * (n / n^n)
n! = 6 * n
(n - 1)! = 6. ---> n = 4.

Answer B
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Given data,

Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive.

Given condition,

probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number

we have to find value of n?

total number of possible outcomes = n^n

probability that all of them choose different numbers = The number of ways for all of them to choose different numbers is n×(n−1)×(n−2)×⋯×1=n!

=>P(different) = n!/n^n

probability that all of them choose the same number = The number of ways for all of them to choose the same number is n.
=>P(Same) = n/ n^n

Based on given condition, P(different)=6×P(same)
n!/ n^n = 6 * n/n^n
n! = 6 * n
n * (n−1)!=6 * n
(n-1)! = 6

when n=4: (4−1)!=3!=3×2×1=6. 6=6.
Option (B) is the solution.
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For the range 1 to n, inclusive; we need to pick n numbers in two of the following ways

  • First: All n numbers are different
  • Second: All n numbers are the same

Total number of ways that n numbers can be picked from 1 to n, inclusive, is \(n^n\); this is because each number can be picked in n ways

First: All n numbers are different

If all the numbers are different, then the 1st number can be picked in n ways
The second can be picked in n-1 ways
The third in n-2 ways, and so on

This is nothing but n!

Probability = \(\frac{n!}{ Total}\) = \(\frac{n!}{n^n}\) [equation 1]

Second: All n numbers are the same

Imagine you have the numbers 1,2,3 and you have to select 3 numbers from them such that all 3 are the same

You can do that by creating sets, it's either (1,1,1) or (2,2,2) or (3,3,3); thus, 3 ways
Total number of ways will be \(3^3\)

Similarly, if we have n numbers to choose from,
The probability that all the numbers are the same is \(\frac{n}{n^n}\) [equation 2]

Now we are told that
P(different) = 6*P(same)

Putting equations 1 and 2 in the above, we get,

\(n! = 6n\)
\((n-1)! = 6\)
\(n-1 = 3\) [The only integer whose factorial value is 6, is 3]
\(n=4\)

Answer B.
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Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

Total outcome when each has n options to choose = n^n

Choosing the same number, everyone have only 1 option = n
Probablitity same = n/n^n

Choosing the different numbers, first have n, second n-1, .... = n!
Probablitity Different = n!/n^n

Given Different = 6*same
n!/n^n = 6*(n/n^n)
n!/n = 6
(n-1)! = 6 = 3! = 3*2*1
n-1 = 3, n= 4
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Bunuel
Each of n people randomly selects an integer from 1 to n, inclusive. If the probability that all of them choose different numbers is six times the probability that all of them choose the same number, what is the value of n?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 8


 


This question was provided by GMAT Club
for the GMAT Club Olympics Competition

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There are n people and each select an integer from 1 to n.

Total possible outcome , each n people have n choices for them = n^n.

Probability of choosing the same = n / (n^n).

Probability of choosing a different = n! / (n^n)

Given that Probability of different = 6* Probability of same

[ n! / (n^n)] = 6 * [ n / (n^n) ]

n! = 6*n

When n = 4, 4! = 6*4 = 24

Option B
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