Check GMAT Club Decision Tracker for the Latest School Decision Releases https://gmatclub.com/AppTrack

 It is currently 25 May 2017, 03:53

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the

Author Message
TAGS:

### Hide Tags

Manager
Joined: 24 Aug 2012
Posts: 130
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 250 [1] , given: 2

Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

05 Oct 2012, 03:19
1
KUDOS
00:00

Difficulty:

25% (medium)

Question Stats:

63% (01:36) correct 38% (00:35) wrong based on 168 sessions

### HideShow timer Statistics

Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.

(a) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
(b) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(c) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(d) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(e) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

[Reveal] Spoiler:
The original sentence incorrectly uses the phrase "numbers of" instead of the correct expression "number of."

• (A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

• (B) This choice correctly replaces "numbers of" with "number of." However, the present perfect tense verb "having had" is incorrectly used. The present perfect tense is used to indicate an event that started in the past and remains true in the present. Since this sentence simply defines the term "polydactyly," the present perfect tense is inappropriate. Instead, in order to maintain parallel structure, the phrase "is termed polydactyly" must be preceded by a noun phrase; the word "having" is a gerund, a verb that acts as a noun, and is therefore appropriate to open that phrase.

• (C) CORRECT. This choice correctly replaces "numbers of" with "number of."

(D) This choice correctly replaces "numbers of" with "number of." However, the phrase beginning with the infinitive form "to have" is not parallel with the phrase "is termed polydactyly." To maintain parallel structure the phrase "is termed polydactyly" must be preceded by a noun phrase; the word "having" is a gerund, a verb that acts as a noun, and is therefore appropriate to open that phrase.

• (E) This choice incorrectly uses the phrase "numbers of" instead of the correct expression "number of." Moreover, the phrase beginning with the infinitive form "to have" is not parallel with the phrase "is termed polydactyly." To maintain parallel structure the phrase "is termed polydactyly" must be preceded by a noun phrase; the word "having" is a gerund, a verb that acts as a noun, and is therefore appropriate to open that phrase.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

_________________

Push +1 kudos button please, if you like my post

If you have any questions
New!
Manager
Joined: 31 Mar 2010
Posts: 131
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 90 [1] , given: 38

Re: Having more than the usual numbers [#permalink]

### Show Tags

05 Oct 2012, 03:51
1
KUDOS
Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.

(a) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
(b) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes - "having had" means one had it in past but does not have it anymore
(c) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes - correct
(d) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes - Incorrect meaning - "to have "suggests as if we have a choice
(e) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

C is correct.
_________________

Push +1 kudos button please, if you like my post

Magoosh GMAT Instructor
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 4035
Followers: 1416

Kudos [?]: 6764 [3] , given: 84

Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

07 Feb 2013, 13:23
3
KUDOS
Expert's post
kingb wrote:
Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.
(A) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
(B) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(C) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(D) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(E) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

fameatop wrote:
Can you explain why option D is incorrect & C is correct. Regards, Fame

I'm happy to help with this. I am answering a pm from Fame.

This is an MGMAT question. Normally, I hold MGMAT in the highest regard, but I will say --- sometimes a few of their questions get into some reasonably obscure territory is that is bit more picayune than the GMAT SC would touch. I believe this is such a question.

First of all, the word "number" is correct, not "numbers." Therefore, (A) & (E) are out. Furthermore, (B) is simply ridiculous, so that's out.
The real question is (C) vs. (D), gerund vs. infinitive as the subject. For more on gerunds, see this:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gramm ... d-phrases/
For more on infinitives, see:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/infinitive ... -the-gmat/

Notice, first of all, there is NO PARALLELISM in this sentence. We have the verb "is termed" and then we have the noun, the term, "polydactyly." Both gerunds and infinitive can act as nouns. In particular, both gerunds and infinitive can be subjects of sentences.
To err is human. --- Seneca the Younger (4 BC-65 AD) --- infinitive subject
Reading classical Latin literature can be edifying. --- gerund subject

What is the difference between having a gerund as a subject vs. having an infinitive as a subject? There's no clear and well-defined rule. There's nothing cut-and-dry. In certain instances, one will sound more natural than the other, but that's far from rigorous. In this particular sentence, I will say --- for reasons I can't articulate, (C) does some more natural, but I believe there is absolutely nothing wrong with (D). In my mind, the difference between (C) & (D) is too slight for this to be the defining split on a SC question. As much as I respect MGMAT in general, I think I will say --- this is not a particularly GMAT-like SC question, because it lacks a clear & unambiguous split between (C) & (D).

Here's a link where Ron Purewal himself says the MGMAT folks were debating this question.
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/ger ... t3133.html
The fact that the bright people who wrote this question original have to debate about it means that it lacks the ringing clarity that characterizes a good GMAT-like SC question.

Does all this make sense?
Mike
_________________

Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

Manager
Joined: 18 Oct 2013
Posts: 82
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Finance
GMAT 1: 580 Q48 V21
GMAT 2: 530 Q49 V13
GMAT 3: 590 Q49 V21
WE: Information Technology (Computer Software)
Followers: 3

Kudos [?]: 42 [0], given: 36

Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

26 Nov 2013, 14:11
Eliminate A ) - Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
Eliminate B) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
Eliminate D) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
Eliminate E) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

(C) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes .Correct
Intern
Joined: 20 May 2013
Posts: 8
Location: India
GMAT 1: 550 Q47 V20
GPA: 3.7
WE: Other (Computer Software)
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 5 [0], given: 42

Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

09 Mar 2014, 06:45
mikemcgarry wrote:
kingb wrote:
Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the hands or feet is termed polydactyly.
(A) Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes
(B) Having had more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(C) Having more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(D) To have more than the usual number of fingers or toes
(E) To have more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes

fameatop wrote:
Can you explain why option D is incorrect & C is correct. Regards, Fame

I'm happy to help with this. I am answering a pm from Fame.

This is an MGMAT question. Normally, I hold MGMAT in the highest regard, but I will say --- sometimes a few of their questions get into some reasonably obscure territory is that is bit more picayune than the GMAT SC would touch. I believe this is such a question.

First of all, the word "number" is correct, not "numbers." Therefore, (A) & (E) are out. Furthermore, (B) is simply ridiculous, so that's out.
The real question is (C) vs. (D), gerund vs. infinitive as the subject. For more on gerunds, see this:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/gmat-gramm ... d-phrases/
For more on infinitives, see:
http://magoosh.com/gmat/2012/infinitive ... -the-gmat/

Notice, first of all, there is NO PARALLELISM in this sentence. We have the verb "is termed" and then we have the noun, the term, "polydactyly." Both gerunds and infinitive can act as nouns. In particular, both gerunds and infinitive can be subjects of sentences.
To err is human. --- Seneca the Younger (4 BC-65 AD) --- infinitive subject
Reading classical Latin literature can be edifying. --- gerund subject

What is the difference between having a gerund as a subject vs. having an infinitive as a subject? There's no clear and well-defined rule. There's nothing cut-and-dry. In certain instances, one will sound more natural than the other, but that's far from rigorous. In this particular sentence, I will say --- for reasons I can't articulate, (C) does some more natural, but I believe there is absolutely nothing wrong with (D). In my mind, the difference between (C) & (D) is too slight for this to be the defining split on a SC question. As much as I respect MGMAT in general, I think I will say --- this is not a particularly GMAT-like SC question, because it lacks a clear & unambiguous split between (C) & (D).

Here's a link where Ron Purewal himself says the MGMAT folks were debating this question.
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/ger ... t3133.html
The fact that the bright people who wrote this question original have to debate about it means that it lacks the ringing clarity that characterizes a good GMAT-like SC question.

Does all this make sense?
Mike

Hi Mike,

Brilliant explanation!
But I have a doubt from the meaning perspective of the sentence. "Having" may imply "eating". Then Having fingers or toes is awkward. So I thought "To have" is more precise.
Could you please throw some light. Sorry if this is naive. :D
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 4035
Followers: 1416

Kudos [?]: 6764 [0], given: 84

Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

10 Mar 2014, 12:32
fantasycracker wrote:
Hi Mike,

Brilliant explanation!
But I have a doubt from the meaning perspective of the sentence. "Having" may imply "eating". Then Having fingers or toes is awkward. So I thought "To have" is more precise.
Could you please throw some light. Sorry if this is naive. :D

Dear fantasycracker,
I'm happy to respond.

Using the verb "to have" ("has", "had", "having", etc.) as a synonym for "to eat" is an idiomatic colloquialism that never never never will appear anywhere on the GMAT. That will never be the primary implication of the word.

Does this make sense?

Mike
_________________

Mike McGarry
Magoosh Test Prep

Intern
Joined: 20 May 2013
Posts: 8
Location: India
GMAT 1: 550 Q47 V20
GPA: 3.7
WE: Other (Computer Software)
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 5 [0], given: 42

Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the [#permalink]

### Show Tags

10 Mar 2014, 13:12
Quote:
Using the verb "to have" ("has", "had", "having", etc.) as a synonym for "to eat" is an idiomatic colloquialism that never never never will appear anywhere on the GMAT. That will never be the primary implication of the word.

Does this make sense?

Mike

That perfectly makes sense. Thanks a ton
Re: Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the   [#permalink] 10 Mar 2014, 13:12
Similar topics Replies Last post
Similar
Topics:
3 The White House is more accessible to the public than usual 6 13 Jan 2017, 09:13
6 Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the 13 25 Apr 2017, 11:03
9 In addition to having a greater number of students than 31 09 Aug 2014, 06:54
24 In addition to having more protein -than wheat does, the 10 29 Apr 2017, 17:14
15 Having more than the usual numbers of fingers or toes on the 10 16 Aug 2016, 20:22
Display posts from previous: Sort by