himanshu0077
GMATNinja
Shipra123
In this question ATTENDING is used as Verb+ing modifier or not? If yes then how it is modifying nearest noun that is TIME???
The word "attending" doesn't just modify the noun "time". In fact, it modifies the entire preceding
clause. The -ing modifier tells us
how Charles should have spent his time.
This is a little easier to see if we get rid of the conditional "if" for a moment: "Charles spent a lot of time attending classes." How did Charles spend a lot of time? Attending classes.
For more on -ing modifiers, check out
this post.
I hope this helps!
But comma+verb-ing modify the action/ clause. IMHO there has to be comma before attending OR it can be "charles spent a lot of time in attending classes".
Please clarify where I am wrong.
Due Regards.
Keep in mind that the GMAT is actually pretty lenient when it comes to comma usage. You always need a comma if you're connecting two independent clauses with a conjunction, but any other comma "rule" should be taken with a grain of salt.
In some cases, the comma helps to clarify the meaning. For example:
- "Charles spent a lot of the money sitting on his couch." - Without a comma, "sitting" seems to modify the "money" -- money that was apparently sitting on Charles's couch.
- "Charles spent a lot of the money, sitting on his couch." - The comma makes it clear that "sitting" should describe the clause, not the money. So now it's clear that Charles spent the money as he was sitting on his couch.
In the pair of examples above, the comma makes a huge difference. But is the comma as crucial in something like, "Charles spent a lot of time attending classes."?
In the first example above, it was reasonable enough to imagine a stack of money piled up on Charles's couch (i.e. "money sitting on his couch"). But can you imagine "time
attending classes"? And if so, how does one "spend" this special type of time that can somehow go to class?
That interpretation doesn't make any sense, and the intended meaning (as described earlier in the thread) is perfectly clear and logical.
In other words: unlike in our last pair of examples, the reader doesn't NEED the comma to figure out what's going on, so the comma isn't really necessary.
If you see a comma + verb-ing modifier, there's a pretty good chance that the "-ing" modifies the preceding clause. Could the GMAT come up with some example that breaks this "rule"? Sure -- the GMAT loves to mock our so-called grammar rules, and there are disturbingly few rules that apply universally. Likewise, does the absence of the comma mean that the "-ing" modifies the preceding noun? Not necessarily.
In general, if you see something that seems to break a "rule", but the meaning is perfectly clear and logical, you should be conservative and look for other decision points.
I hope that helps!