Hi experts
IanStewart AndrewN avigutman AjiteshArun zhanboIt is an interesting passage of social science, but I am confused with some options even though I have checked all posts in this thread. Could you share some of your thoughts when you have time? Thank you!
1. Question 6
broall wrote:
6. Zelizer refers to all of the following as important influences in changing the assessment of children’s worth EXCEPT changes in(A) the mortality rate
(B) the nature of industry
(C) the nature of the family
(D) attitudes toward reform movements
(E) attitudes toward the
marketplace I was stuck between (D) and (E), because even though the passage does not mention any change in the attitudes toward reform movements, it does not mention the change in the attitudes towards the
marketplace either, at least literally.
broall wrote:
For Zelizer the origins of this transformation were many and complex. The gradual erosion of children’s productive value in a maturing industrial economy, the decline in birth and death rates, especially in child mortality, and the development of the companionate family (a family in which members were united by explicit bonds of love rather than duty) were all factors critical in changing the assessment of children’s worth.
Yet “expulsion of children from the ‘cash nexus,’ although clearly shaped by profound changes in the economic, occupational, and family structures,” Zelizer maintains, “was also part of a cultural process ‘of sacralization’ of children’s lives.” Protecting children from the crass business world became enormously important for late-nineteenth-century middle-class Americans, she suggests; this sacralization was a way of resisting what they perceived as the relentless corruption of human values by the marketplace. Zelizer claims that the expulsion of children from the cash nexus was also part of a cultural process of sacralization of children lives, and this sacralization was a way of resisting what Americans considered the relentless corruption of human values by the
marketplace. There is no word that means "change" in this claim. So I guess I need to infer that since it is a "process," something might have changed in the process (a view or an attitude towards some cultural issue), and since people resisted what they did not resist earlier, a shift in people's attitudes should be present. Are my thinking lines correct?
To infer or not to infer, that is the question to me in the RC section. (Sorry Shakespeare) Unlike CR questions, with which I can more confidently know when I should make inference, RC questions are not that clear. I fall into trap options sometimes because I happily make undue inference, and sometimes because I don't make adequate inference. I know that test takers must stick to the original passage for the "according to/mention/state" type questions, and they must infer for the "suggest/imply/can be inferred" type questions. But sometimes the line seems blurred to me--for example, I thought that this question, with phrasing "
refer to," is the first type of question, so I should not make any inference, and thus was hesitant about (E).
Am I being too narrow here? Am I supposed to understand that there should be a shift in people's attitudes towards the
marketplace even though the word "change" or its synonyms never show in the passage?
2. Question 3
broall wrote:
3. Which of the following alternative explanations of the change in the cash value of children would be most likely to be put forward by sociological economists as they are described in the passage?
(B) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because their expected earnings over the course of a lifetime increased greatly.
(D) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because compulsory education laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs, of available child labor.
All five options start with "
The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century," which is the first thing bothering me, since we readers cannot really tell whether the sociological economists agree that children's cash value rose during the period. In fact, I suppose that because the economists view everything in terms of economics, they are more likely to hold that the children's cash value decreased during 19C, because child labor was limited by new regulations while children remained costly to their parents.
With this line of thinking, I will prefer an option saying that the children's cash value
declined during the period, but there is not such an option. So, I know that I need to accept that these economists, contrary to my original analysis, hold that children's cash value increased during 19C and I need to find out an explanation. (So far this process has taken me 40 seconds.

)
I have no problem with the correct option (B), and I do not feel interested at (D) as much as I do at (B), but I am not very sure why (D) is incorrect.
(D) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because compulsory education laws reduced the supply, and thus raised the costs, of available child labor.To eliminate (D), experts whom I respect have explained in previous posts that children could not work because of the new regulations, so child labor should be irrelevant to the change in the cash value. Another explanation is that (D)'s use of "
compulsory education laws" is problematic because there is no evidence that the laws were implemented to maximize economic gains.
But I have some doubts: (1) the new rules were "child labor regulations" and "compulsory education laws," from whose name we readers cannot really infer that child labors are banned completely. Yes, the passage says that the new rules were based on an assumption that a child’s emotional value made child labor "taboo," which is a strong word. But a strong assumption does not mean that the regulations based on the assumption will also have strong requirements, does it? An analogy is that in some countries anti-smoking programs are based on the assumption that smoking even a cigarette a day has a huge impact on health, but these programs do not ban smoking completely.
(2) I am unsure why the use of "
compulsory education laws" is problematic. It seems natural to me that these economists analyze the economic effect of new regulations. The passage mentions the new regulations as facts, so I do not feel that these economists need to go that far to give evidence that the new regulations were enforced in order to maximize economic gains.
The only way I can eliminate (D) is similar to the way I use in CR statistics questions: the raised costs might lead to higher income earned by a child individually if his or her work hours remained unchanged, but because the supply of child labor was reduced by the new rules, it is possible that the total income earned by all children actually decreased, contradicting the claim that the children's cash value rose during 19C. It is also possible that the total income earned by children increased, but we are not sure. So, (D) is not safe.
But I am concerned that my thinking process might not be efficient--I spent two minutes on this question. Hence, I would like to learn how you experts attack (D) quickly.
3. "humanitarian"
Separately I have a secondary question about the Question 3--I am curious whether the option (C) is a good rephrasing of Zelizer's view. I am unsure whether Americans' new attitudes toward child labor in late 19C and 20C could be described as "humanitarian," which is usually used to describe people's treatment to prisoners or others affected by the war.
(C) The cash value of children rose during the nineteenth century because the spread of humanitarian ideals resulted in a wholesale reappraisal of the worth of an individual.Thank you experts for your time and thoughts!
Thank you for helping me learn.