GMAT Question of the Day - Daily to your Mailbox; hard ones only

It is currently 18 Jun 2019, 18:42

Close

GMAT Club Daily Prep

Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

Close

Request Expert Reply

Confirm Cancel

In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con

  new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  
Author Message
TAGS:

Hide Tags

 
Intern
Intern
avatar
Joined: 11 Jul 2012
Posts: 45
In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post Updated on: 21 Nov 2018, 01:31
6
20
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

Difficulty:

  5% (low)

Question Stats:

81% (01:23) correct 19% (01:35) wrong based on 2303 sessions

HideShow timer Statistics

In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?


(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations.

Originally posted by betterscore on 03 Aug 2012, 16:11.
Last edited by Bunuel on 21 Nov 2018, 01:31, edited 2 times in total.
Renamed the topic and edited the question.
Most Helpful Expert Reply
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
User avatar
Joined: 28 Nov 2011
Posts: 301
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 03 Aug 2012, 17:51
5
The argument states that the decrease in coffee consumption can only be explained by the sudden awareness amongst consumers that caffeine has adverse health effects. To weaken this argument we need an answer choice that provides a compelling alternative explanation.

(E) says that coffee prices have increased steadily in the past decade. Such an increase in price could push consumers away and therefore account for the decrease in coffee consumption.
_________________
Christopher Lele
Magoosh Test Prep

Image

Image
Most Helpful Community Reply
Manager
Manager
avatar
Joined: 02 Jan 2011
Posts: 126
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 06 Aug 2012, 03:33
5
1
(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago. - Does not prove why the consumption of coffee has come down - Incorrect

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption. - Out of scope and Irrelevant information - Incorrect

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined. - Does not fill the gap between decreased coffee sales and awareness in people about harmful affects of caffine - Incorrect

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade. - No direct relation can be assumed between increase in consumption of fruit jucies and decrease in consumption of coffee - Incorrect

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations. - Due to increase in coffee prices because of low produce, the consumption has also come down - Correct
General Discussion
Intern
Intern
avatar
Joined: 18 Aug 2012
Posts: 48
GMAT 1: 690 Q37 V48
Reviews Badge
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 20 Aug 2012, 03:04
got it down to C and E,

Negated C , my reason was that it does try to make you infer that may this is something to do with regular coffee , but does not directly point to causality.
E does that ... :lol:
_________________
GMATPrep 1: 670
GMATPrep 2 : 710
Senior Manager
Senior Manager
avatar
B
Status: Now or never
Joined: 07 Aug 2010
Posts: 287
Location: India
Concentration: Strategy, Technology
GPA: 3.5
WE: Consulting (Consulting)
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 23 Aug 2012, 10:28
1
Clear E , in weaking questions finding an alternative to the conclusion often helps
_________________
Please press KUDOS if you like my post
Senior Manager
Senior Manager
avatar
Joined: 29 Oct 2008
Posts: 329
Location: United States
Concentration: Marketing, Technology
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 07 Jan 2014, 18:10
ChrisLele wrote:
The argument states that the decrease in coffee consumption can only be explained by the sudden awareness amongst consumers that caffeine has adverse health effects. To weaken this argument we need an answer choice that provides a compelling alternative explanation.

(E) says that coffee prices have increased steadily in the past decade. Such an increase in price could push consumers away and therefore account for the decrease in coffee consumption.
@Chris, From stimulus, I assessed the conclusion as Cause --> Effect chain as: Awareness --->Decrease in Coffee Consumption.
For D, Cant we say that Alternate Cause "Increase in fruit juice Consumption" could have alternatively caused --->Decrease in Coffee Consumption?

Isn't an increase in coffee price is as good alternate explanation for switchover as the increase in alternate option of having fruit juices (which are healthier as well)?
Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 20 Jan 2014
Posts: 140
Location: India
Concentration: Technology, Marketing
GMAT ToolKit User
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 24 Sep 2014, 04:04
Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations. - Due to increase in coffee prices because of low produce, the consumption has also come down
Hence E. This Weakens the argument
_________________
Consider +1 Kudos Please :)
Manager
Manager
avatar
Joined: 16 Jun 2010
Posts: 142
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 07 Nov 2014, 08:54
2
1
joshnsit wrote:
ChrisLele wrote:
The argument states that the decrease in coffee consumption can only be explained by the sudden awareness amongst consumers that caffeine has adverse health effects. To weaken this argument we need an answer choice that provides a compelling alternative explanation.

(E) says that coffee prices have increased steadily in the past decade. Such an increase in price could push consumers away and therefore account for the decrease in coffee consumption.
Chris, From stimulus, I assessed the conclusion as Cause --> Effect chain as: Awareness --->Decrease in Coffee Consumption.
For D, Cant we say that Alternate Cause "Increase in fruit juice Consumption" could have alternatively caused --->Decrease in Coffee Consumption?

Isn't an increase in coffee price is as good alternate explanation for switchover as the increase in alternate option of having fruit juices (which are healthier as well)?


Hi Josh,
I too struggled with the same question as you.

But I resolved it with this logic:
The goal of the argument is to identify if the decrease in coffee consumption (Effect) is a result of increasing publicity about the harmful effects of Caffeine. (Cause)
The correct answer should provide a different cause for the same effect.

Consider Answer D: An increase in consumption of non-caffeinated products like fruit juices and herbal tea, points to the fact that the increasing publicity about the harmful effects of Caffeine had an effect on the consumption of non-caffeinated products. That is our cause had an unintended effect. Thus answer D is an effect and not a cause. We are looking for a cause.

Moving down to answer E. It provides a separate plausible cause for our effect. Hence is the correct answer.

Finally, you could argue that increase in non-caffeinated drinks is the cause of decrease in consumption of caffeinated drinks. However, this would be true only in a zero sum world where the sum of caffeinated and non-caffeinated drinks has to remain constant. So increase in one would lead to a decrease in another. But such a world does not exist in reality and specifically is not mentioned in the stimulus. So, one cannot consider that as a cause.

Hope the above explanation helps someone.
_________________
Please give me kudos, if you like the above post.
Thanks.
Board of Directors
User avatar
P
Joined: 17 Jul 2014
Posts: 2544
Location: United States (IL)
Concentration: Finance, Economics
GMAT 1: 650 Q49 V30
GPA: 3.92
WE: General Management (Transportation)
GMAT ToolKit User Reviews Badge
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 02 Nov 2015, 19:57
can be easily narrowed down to C and E. Between C and E, only E directly addresses the conclusion by stating that there has been other cause that led to decreased consumption.
Retired Moderator
User avatar
D
Joined: 13 Apr 2015
Posts: 1679
Location: India
Concentration: Strategy, General Management
GMAT 1: 200 Q1 V1
GPA: 4
WE: Analyst (Retail)
GMAT ToolKit User
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 06 Dec 2015, 20:58
Cause: Awareness of harmful effects of caffeine.
Effect: Decrease in coffee consumption.

Option E provides a different cause, weakening the argument.

Answer: E
Current Student
User avatar
V
Joined: 19 Mar 2012
Posts: 4272
Location: India
GMAT 1: 760 Q50 V42
GPA: 3.8
WE: Marketing (Non-Profit and Government)
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 06 Dec 2015, 22:34
2
1
The argument states that the decrease in coffee consumption can only be explained by the sudden awareness amongst consumers that caffeine has adverse health effects. To weaken this argument we need an answer choice that provides a compelling alternative explanation.

(E) says that coffee prices have increased steadily in the past decade. Such an increase in price could push consumers away and therefore account for the decrease in coffee consumption.
_________________
Director
Director
User avatar
B
Joined: 04 Jun 2016
Posts: 562
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V43
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 10 Jul 2016, 12:13
If one has studied syllogistic logic and fallacies in general , it is very easy to see the flaw in this argument.
This argument commits the fallacy of CAUSAL OVERSIMPLIFICATION which is a logical fallacy , belonging in the family of FALLACIES OF PRESUMPTION.

See this argument for example:-
It is because of the skilled doctors that today's generation has a higher average life period than generation of last century.

Well, skilled doctors may be one of the reasons for higher life span, but better and safer transport, less accidents, availability of better medicines, Less wars and endemic diseases (such a plague which killed 20% of entire europes population in 19th century) may be other factors. Attributing higher life to skilled doctors is not entirely right.
NOW APPLY THE SAME LOGIC HERE :-

Does the coffee consumption decreased because of studies showing its harmful effect :- HELL NO !! well may be a little. But may be coffee consumption decreased because it has become so expensive that people do not buy it as frequently as they used to earlier.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations
CORRECT ANSWER IS E

betterscore wrote:
In the last decade there has been a significant
decrease in coffee consumption. During this same
time, there has been increasing publicity about the
adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in
coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption
must have been caused by consumers' awareness of
the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into
question the explanation above?

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less
coffee today than they did 10 years ago.

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal
symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so
after significantly decreasing their coffee
consumption.

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held
steady as sales of regular brands have declined.

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free
herbal teas has increased over the past decade.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past
decade because of unusually severe frosts in
coffee-growing nations.

_________________
Posting an answer without an explanation is "GOD COMPLEX". The world doesn't need any more gods. Please explain you answers properly.
FINAL GOODBYE :- 17th SEPTEMBER 2016. .. 16 March 2017 - I am back but for all purposes please consider me semi-retired.
Veritas Prep GMAT Instructor
User avatar
D
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Posts: 9330
Location: Pune, India
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 15 Nov 2018, 23:04
1
1
betterscore wrote:
In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee consumption. During this same time, there has been increasing publicity about the adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the explanation above?

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations.


In last decade, coffee consumption has decreased.
At the same time, there has been increasing publicity of adverse long term effects of caffeine.

Conclusion: the decrease in coffee consumption must have been caused by consumers' awareness of the harmful effects of caffeine.

The logic is flawed, right? Just because they occur simultaneously, doesn't mean one is actually the reason for the other.

We need to weaken the argument.

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago.

This doesn't weaken the argument. It is already known that people consume less coffee today. The argument says that it is because of bad publicity. We need to evaluate whether the decrease is because of bad publicity. We need the reason because of which the consumption of coffee is going down. Just restating the fact that consumption of coffee is going down does not weaken our argument.

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption.

Irrelevant to the argument.

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined.

Overall, the sales of coffee has reduced even if sales of some specialty types have held steady.

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade.

Irrelevant. It doesn't matter what is replacing coffee.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations.

This could be the reason for decrease in the consumption of coffee. So this brings into question the causality established by the argument.

Answer (E)
_________________
Karishma
Veritas Prep GMAT Instructor

Learn more about how Veritas Prep can help you achieve a great GMAT score by checking out their GMAT Prep Options >
Senior RC Moderator
User avatar
V
Status: Preparing GMAT
Joined: 02 Nov 2016
Posts: 2759
Location: Pakistan
GPA: 3.39
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Nov 2018, 01:28
1
Hi Bunuel

A tag of: "Source: Official guide" should be added with this question.
_________________
New Project RC Butler 2019 - Practice 2 RC Passages Everyday
Final days of the GMAT Exam? => All GMAT Flashcards.
This Post Helps = Press +1 Kudos
Best of Luck on the GMAT!!
Math Expert
User avatar
V
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 55670
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Nov 2018, 01:32
GMAT Club Bot
Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con   [#permalink] 21 Nov 2018, 01:32
Display posts from previous: Sort by

In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in coffee con

  new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  


Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne