The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to

@e-gmat
daagh
Kindly request you to please see that in option E-Two independent clausea are joined by(,Plus because), but as far as my knowledge is concerned to connect two independent clauses we use ,+fanboys-in this b stands for but..
Kindly request you to please explain

A is wrong b/c "because" demonstrates a clear causal relationship, while "because of" demonstrates a reason for a conclusion.

Hi Skywalker,
Cant we eliminate C on the basis that allows that takes subjunctive form and for that the verb be is required. Subjunctive form- Noun/ Pronoun allows that X be Y.

GMATNinja verbal expert can you please point out what exactly is wrong with option C apart from the fact that it sounds strange i.e. has a weird sentence construction.Thanks.
Wondering if 'allow that' is an incorrect use of idiom??

Hey VQ,

I would like to help you with this one.
The word allow always need to along with it. The other words which fall in this category-

To allow
To forbid
To chose
To decide
To persuade.


Consider kudos if that helped

Sent from my ONEPLUS A3003 using GMAT Club Forum mobile app

Skywalker18 succinctly summarized the issues with (C) in this post: https://gmatclub.com/forum/the-globaliz ... l#p1968383. There's a longer-winded explanation here as well.


I would respectfully caution against thinking that the word "allow" must always be accompanied by the word "to." Sure, "to allow" is the infinitive form of the verb, but like any other verb, we can use it in all sorts of other ways, depending on the grammatical subject of the sentence and the verb tense. All of the following are completely acceptable:

• The fun-loving mother allows her daughter to use avocado as a type of hair gel.
• Tax evasion is allowed only if the taxpayer is a personal friend of the president.
• The admissions committees of several elite MBA programs allow applicants to eat burritos during their interviews.

Maybe you're thinking that the word "allow" frequently is FOLLOWED by another verb in the infinitive form? But even that isn't necessary -- see the 2nd of my examples above.

I hope this helps!

Thanks a lot for this Gmatninja. Surely it helps.

Thank you = Kudos

when comma+doing or comma+preposition+doing is added to main clause, this phrase work as adverb modifying the main clause and the doing refers to the subject of the main clause. but not every preposition can stand in this position . only a few preposition can stand before doing in this pattern.

look at choice A and B, because of can not stand before allowing and so, allowing dose not refer to the subject of the main clause. this is vital and basic grammar point we have to know

There are a few things that I wish to tell those who are fresh to GMAT Prepping.

1. One must be clear about the difference between the use of because of and due to. One might have heard frequently that 'because of' is a verb modifier and 'due to' is a noun modifier. However, many mistake this to modify the word that follows 'of' in 'because of' and 'to' in 'due to'. Please realize that what follows these prepositions will always be a noun or noun phrase or a pronoun. No exceptions to that norm and one cannot claim that both 'because of' and 'due to' are modifying nouns.

What is important is what goes before these prepositional phrases. If you want to use 'because of' there should be an active verb of action in the prior part, in addition to any other "state verb" that might be there.

EX: The financial markets have been so globalized that it is a boon to the money launderers because of allowing...


You can see that prior to 'because of', there is an active verb 'have been so globalized'.
This is, in fact, the verb 'because of' modifies and hence it is called a verb modifier.

On the contrary, look at the following sentence:


The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to money launderers, due to allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred to a branch in a more regulated one.
You might see that the verb 'have been globalized' is now converted into a noun 'globalization.' This the noun the 'due to' phrase is actually modifying. Hence, 'due to' is called a noun modifier.
As per the above norm, 'because of' in both A and B are wrong as 'because of' cannot modify the noun globalization.

The second point is about subjunctive mood. Many are tending to misuse or even abuse the words 'allow' and 'that' as subjunctive mood elements. We may perhaps use 'that' in command subjunctive moods, but every time we use 'that', it need not be subjunctive. In addition, the word 'allows' has no connotation to subjunctive mood what so ever; it expresses neither a wish nor a command nor mandatoriness. It is a simple indicative verb. Therefore, 'allows that' in C does not require using a subjunctive mood verb.

It refers to globalization and we need subjunctive. C (That + is) and D ( tense issue have been) does this incorrectly.

AO : E

That seems to be a typo. It should be either money launderers or money laundering.

[quote="daagh"]
Thanks for your explanation.
I have two doubts
1.The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to money launders, because of allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred to a branch in a more regulated one.
In the above sentence what is the role of has been .i understand its past perfect but what is the verb in the sentence.
2. I keep seeing subjunctive mood , but not sure of its use . Any good article or anything you can please help with.

Posted from my mobile device

Unflinching,
has been itself is the present perfect tense verb. 'been' is the perfect tense form in this case- "be -was- been". 'been' is also used for past perfect as 'had been'.
For some material on subjunctive use, give me a day or two. I will search.

My Bad that I mentioned has been as past perfect . My apologies .
But what I wanted to understand is what you meant by these words (excerpts from your explanation of when to use due to vs because of)
"What is important is what goes before these prepositional phrases. If you want to use 'because of' there should be an active verb of action in the prior part, in addition to any other "state verb" that might be there."

If I understand it correctly --->has been serve as the state verb and there is no action verb . So in this context usage of because of is incorrect .(globalization serves a noun)

However if the sentence is modified
EX: The financial markets have been so globalized that it is a boon to the money launderers because of allowing...

Here globalized serves as action verb in addition to the presence of state verb (has been) which has no effect on the usage of because of .

Please correct me if I am wrong

Unflinching

Look at this:
I am taller than brother is
I jump higher than my brother does.
You can see jump is an action verb while 'am' is a state verb, because when you jump, you make an effort, while in "I am", I don't make an effort, but I am just what I am.
'Globalized' means that some factor has globalized something or that something was globalized by someone. There is an effort involved in that. Am I correct? Therefore, 'globalized ' is an action verb.

In the case of both A and B choices, there is no such verb as 'globalized'. Hence, both the choices using ' because of' are wrong.

I am not clear what is the disconnect between your perception and my statement.

" because of +doing" is relevant to the pattern "doing +comma+main clause". a full explanation of this pattern can be found in grammar books. but do not read many pages in grammar books because they are not relevant to gmat. the fact that you need to read some pages in grammar book is a trap, which cause you want to read many grammatical pages, making you to die.

in the pattern "doing+comma+main clause", doing refer to the subject of the main clause. but not all preposition can be in this pattern. "instead of" can be in this pattern but "because of" can not be in this pattern.

in option E
it allows
both subject and verb are there making it an independent clause separated by a comma,
isnt this wrong
what is the problem with B