willacethis
My question is that does GMAT have any kind of bias against these sentence structures?
No bias against such sentences at all!
By the way, in the sentence:
It is assumed that...It actually
does have an antecedent; just that the antecedent is used
after the pronoun.
It refers to
that.....
For example:
It is assumed that hard work is good.The sentence is equivalent to:
(that hard work is good) is assumed .
Hence,
it refers to
that hard work is good.
By the way, many
indefinite pronouns (such as
no one, everyone etc.) will
not have any antecedents and that's
fine.
p.s. Our book
EducationAisle Sentence Correction Nirvana discusses the cases where
Pronouns are used before the antecedent, their application and examples in significant detail. If you or someone is interested, PM me your email-id; I can mail the corresponding section.