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prateekgmat16
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prateekgmat16
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daagh
please assist on how you approach this question?
I opted for D
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daagh
The key between A and B/E is the word ‘may agree’. While originally the intent is to say that there may be some level of agreement, B and E aver that there is definite agreement. B and E depict altered intent.


Please clarify, how you decided on the "the intent is to say that there may be some level of agreement". Since the part of sentence that has "may agree" is also underlined.
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Some level of agreement = it might be anywhere from 1 % to 99%. But not 100. Agree= 100%. That is the core in this issue, IMO.

The reason that the word ‘may agree’ has been inserted is to indicate that the agreement may not be universal. Therefore, there is an element of speculation about it. Otherwise, they could have just mentioned ‘agree’. This I feel is the sly swindle adopted by the GMAC in some meaning based questions. However, B and E assert that there is a definitive agreement. Imagine if this topic were to appear in CR, B and E would definitely fall by the wayside because of their infidel interpretation of the intention.

True that ‘may agree’ is underlined, but it does not mean that we are required to correct it. When you go through some meaning based exercise, these nuances do count.
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Hi daagh

I eliminated B because of passive voice. Is my reasoning correct?
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anu
where is the passive voice in B; i would eliminate B for the assertion of "agreement" rather than caling it 'may agree".



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