Auror_07
can a ",verb-ing" mod, when used as a noun mod, modify only the subject? I can't shake off option-D. Please help!!
GMATNinja,
daaghRemember, you're trying to decide why (A) is
better than (D), not why (D) is wrong in a vacuum.
In (A), the noun modifier ("who...") very clearly modifies Ansel Adams. All good there.
In (D), the "having..." part could technically modify the subject ("the most widely known
images of Yosemite National Park") or perhaps the main subject+verb ("the most widely known images of Yosemite National Park
are"). In fact, given how "comma + verb-ing" structures are often used, it would be perfectly natural for the reader to associate the "having..." part with one of those two, at least at first glance. Of course, the meaning doesn't really make sense in that case.
Sure, you could convince yourself the phrase beginning with "having"
should modify Ansel Adams himself, and maybe the sentence is still reasonable. But the sentence structure certainly doesn't lend itself to that logical interpretation.
The other issue is that "having photographed" implies some sort of causality. Here, have an example:
"Having photographed all of the animals at the zoo, Tim decided to go to the aquarium."
This suggests that the "having" part somehow influenced Tim's decision to go to the aquarium -- and that makes perfect sense in this example.
Back to the original question. So does (D) imply that the images are widely known simply because Adams has been photographing the park since his teenage years? That's not necessarily
wrong, but the meaning in (A) is better: The most widely known images of the park are the ones made by Adams, and Adams photographed the park continually from his teenage years on.
Again, you don't need to know that (D) is wrong because it violates some clear-cut grammar rules. You just need to understand why (A) is the clearer and better sentence.
I hope that helps!