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3. With which of the following statements regarding the status of Black people in the English colonies of North America before the 1660's would the author be LEAST likely to agree?

(A) Although Black people were not legally considered to be slaves, they were often called slaves.
(B) Although subject to some discrimination, Black people had a higher legal status than they did after the 1660's.
(C) Although sometimes subject to lifetime servitude, Black people were not legally considered to be slaves.
(D) Although often not treated the same as White people, Black people, like many White people, possessed the legal status of servants.
(E) Although apparently subject to more discrimination after 1630 than before 1630, Black people from 1620 to the 1660's were legally considered to be servants.

Correct Answer : A,

Explanation: Opposite of A has been discussed in the passage: Before 1660's Black People were treated as slaves, but rarely called so and there is evidence from 1630 to prove the same, which is why A is the correct answer. It can be also inferred from the lines: "It is true that before the 1660's Black people were rarely called slaves. But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery."
All the other options have been discussed in the passage and agreed upon by the author.


Thanks.
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kysb
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Kindly provide the explanation for ques 3,4,5

Posted from my mobile device

blueshores For Q3) Read Carefully it ask for LEAST its states quite clearly in the paragraph

So Option A is Correct.

carcass
But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery

Hi, I agree with why A should be the answer but I am not able to exclude B. Where are the rights compared in the passage ?
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kysb
blueshores
Kindly provide the explanation for ques 3,4,5

Posted from my mobile device

blueshores For Q3) Read Carefully it ask for LEAST its states quite clearly in the paragraph

So Option A is Correct.

carcass
But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery

Hi, I agree with why A should be the answer but I am not able to exclude B. Where are the rights compared in the passage ?


Hi Pranjal3107,

Option B can be interpreted from the lines: "Thus, the Handlins contend, Black and White servants heretofore treated alike, each attained a different status......It is true that before the 1660's Black people were rarely called slaves. But this should not overshadow evidence from the 1630's on that points to racial discrimination without using the term slavery."

The legal status being referred to in the passage is the slavery.


Hope This Helps.
Thanks.
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7. With which of the following statements regarding the reason for the introduction of legal slavery in the English colonies of North America would the author be most likely to agree?

(A) The introduction is partly to be explained by reference to the origins of slavery, before the 1660's, in the Spanish and Portuguese colonies.

The author mentions the Spanish and Portuguese colonies to emphasize the racial prejudice in the English colonies, nothing about it impacting why the English colonies introduced legal slavery.

(B) The introduction is to be explained by reference to a growing consensus beginning in the 1630's about what were the attributes of true slavery.


The passage focuses on the discrimination and social construction rather than intellectual agreement on what the attributes are.

(C) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to a decline than to an improvement in the position of White servants in the colonies during and after the 1660's.


While the author does argue that there's no strong evidence of the position of White servants improving, the author doesn't say that there was a decline in the position. The position could have just stayed the same but the position of Black servants worsened or was just bad for long enough to legalize slavery.

(D) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to the position of Black servants in the colonies in the 1630's than by reference to their position in the 1640's and 1650's.


I found this tricky to eliminate. The author does state in the final sentence of the 3rd paragraph that it's more likely that "the early and sometimes extreme racial discrimination in the English colonies..." was the cause but the author uses evidence from 1630 and onward, not stating a specific period (the 1630s compared to the 1640s/50s). This choice is too narrow which is why E is correct.

(E) The introduction is more likely to be explained by reference to the history of Black people in the colonies l?efore 1660 than by reference to the improving position of White servants during and after the 1660's.


The author criticizes Handlins' argument that the legalized slavery arose from the improvement of White servant's position relative to Black's. The author argues that there is insufficient evidence and that discrimination existed before the 1660s, before legalized slavery. According to the second sentence in the final paragraph, "If from the outset Black people were discriminated against, then legal slavery should be viewed as a reflection and an extension of racial prejudice rather than... the cause of prejudice." Since legalized slavery was likely a continuation of discrimination, E captures what the author would agree.

In short, the authors conclusion is that early discrimination is more compelling of a cause to why slavery was legalized rather than Handlins' theory that it was because of the improving position of White servants.
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