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Let 1000ml milk cost $100. That's some expensive milk ;-) no wonder milkman is cheating

The milkman is adding some amount, say x ml in the milk and selling 1000ml of this mixture for 100 (the cost price claimed by milkman) and making 25% profit.

For someone to make 25% profit, the selling price should be 1.25 times the cost price. So, for the milkman, the cost of 1000 ml of the mixture is 100/1.25 or $80.

So the milkman needs only $80 for a mixture of 1000 ml -> meaning only 800ml is milk and hence the remaining 200ml is water.

Hope this is helpful.
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A better way to look at the question is, if the merchant is selling something at a profit of 25% what is its cost price.

We can use a relation that if something increases by 1/4 i.e. 25%, we have to reduce that something by 1/5 i.e. 20% to come down to the original price.

1000 needs to be reduced by 20% to know what the actual amount of milk is sold at CP that merchant claims.

1000*1/5 =200ml

Ans: A
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Let x be cost of milk


Profit = CP/4



SP = 5CP/4


x(w + m) = 5(mx)/4


Amount of water in one litre


5 ( 1- w)x/4 = x

5( 1-w ) = 4


1 - w = 4/5

-w = - 1/5

w = 1/5 l


Convert to ml

1/5 x 1000

= 200ml


Answer A

Adewale Fasipe, GMAT quant instructor Lagos Nigeria.­
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Let there be mix of W lt of water
Price be 1Rs/lt

SP for 1 lt=1Rs
Actual CP for 1 lt=1/(1+W) Rs

1.25(1/(1+W))=1
=>W=1/4 lt=250ml
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