The perfect infinitive may serve to modify a past tense verb.
Carol was proud to have served her country.Conveyed sequence:
was proud = past
to have served = an action performed BEFORE
Carol was proudThis structure is rare.
In most cases, the perfect infinitive serves to modify a present tense verb.
TheUltimateWinner wrote:
Quote:
E: Combining enormous physical strength with higher intelligence, the Neanderthals appeared to have been equipped for facing any obstacle the environment could put in their path, but their relatively sudden disappearance during the paleolithic era indicates that an inability to adapt to some environmental change led to their extinction.
Thanks for the nice explanation,
GMATGuruNYSo, can we say that E is wrong because we don't know which one (appeared VS equipped) happened first?
Conveyed sequence in E:
appeared = past
to have been equipped = an action performed BEFORE
the Neanderthals appearedThe sequence is clear but incorrect.
To express a general truth, we use the SIMPLE PRESENT TENSE.
In the non-underlined portion, the usage of
indicates -- simple present tense -- makes it clear that the intent is discuss a GENERAL TRUTH about the Neanderthals and their disappearance.
For this reason, the two main verbs must be in the simple present tense, as follows:
The Neanderthals APPEAR to have been equipped, but their disappearance INDICATES...an inability.Quote:
Also, can we remove any choice(s) if it has 'past form (e.g., appeared)' with any 'perfect infinitive (TO HAVE verbED)'?
Appreciating your help.
PAST TENSE + PERFECT INFINITIVE is a valid construction, but it is unlikely to appear in an OA.