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Difficulty: 655-705 Levelx   Modifiersx   Pronounsx   Use of Beingx   Verb Tense/Formx                                 
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HarishLearner wrote:
I chose E, and it is the correct one.

By the way, in D, is there an apostrophe in the word "Executives"?

C should be rejected because of "it" being ambiguous.

D has no ambiguity problem, but the construction is so awkward.


There is an apostrophe on Executives' in answer choice D. 'Being heavily committed to a course of action' is a noun phrase and it is the executives who are heavily committed so we use the possessive form of executives - 'Executive's being heavily committed'. This is probably more easily seen if we use a simpler construction - "Executives' heavy commitment". The 'heavy commitment' is the noun and executives needs the possessive.

The real problem with D is the antecedent shift with "them". The first "them" refers back to executives but the second "them" refers to signs. You can't shift antecedents with pronouns in the same sentence.

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sach24x7 wrote:

In this...we have two antecedents for first "IT" but egmat solution does not point this error. Please somebody explain.


On the GMAT these days you may seen problems that have ambiguous antecedents (i.e. multiple potential antecedents). What the GMAT does consistently point to as an error is when the antecedent shifts within the sentence.

Example: I lost my bike this morning but I later found it, but it made me late for work.
Here the first "it" relates to my bike, but the second "it" is a generalization for losing my bike, not the bike itself. That shifting is incorrect on the GMAT.

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anuj4012 wrote:
In option C, why the use of "it" is incorrect? Course of action is the only logical antecedent to it, replacing it with trouble does not makes sense.


Hi Anuj,

Thanks for posting your doubt here. :-)

The reason why the pronoun it appears to be ambiguous in Choice C is that apart from course of action, trouble is another singular pronoun in the sentence even though it is not the logical antecedent of it.

However, this is not the error that makes choice C incorrect. Choice C is incorrect because the modifier especially if it has worked well in the past must be placed next to the a course of action.

Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
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Another example for the correct usage of "being" from GMATPrep.

https://gmatclub.com/forum/the-survival-of-coral-colonies-which-are-composed-of-135059.html#p330537

The survival of coral colonies, which are composed of innumerable tiny polyps living in a symbiotic relationship with brilliantly colored algae, is being threatened, experts say, not only by pollutants such as agricultural runoff, oil slicks, and trash, but also by dropped anchors, probing divers, and global warming.
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Harshani wrote:
Can we reject A, C, D on the basis of incorrect usage of if, then conditional verb?
I mean, don't we have to have a then clause for every "if" clause?

In this sentence, it is written as
"especially if it has worked well". There is no "then clause" after it.

Please advise on this point.



Hello Harshani,

I would be glad to help you with this query. :-)

We need a then clause with an if clause when the intended meaning is to say If A happens, then B happens.

However, the context of this sentence is slightly different from what I have mentioned above.

In a way the main clause acts as the then clause for the if clause mentioned in this official sentence. Simple put, the sentence says that if a course of action has worked well for someone in the past, then heavy commitment towards the same makes the person miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

Hence, there is no error in the usage of if clause in Choices A, C, and D.


Hope this helps. :-)
Thanks.
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Please visit the link below; all your doubts will be cleared.

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... t3173.html
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raunakme19 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja

I came across one of your post where you have mentioned the usage of a special pronoun 'it' with respect to its 'standalone' usage.
PFB link:

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... tml#p49622

Please help me to understand the reference of "That second "it" is the big problem here: "makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." I suppose that "it" could refer to "heavy commitment" or "course of action", but neither of those would make any sense. (A) is gone" with respect to "The rain made it + quite challenging + to drive on the freeway".

Hm, that link didn't come through -- and I've never posted anything on the Manhattan website. Maybe you're confusing me with somebody else? Ron Purewal, maybe? We do have similar GMAT scores...?

"Standalone" pronouns do exist, but they're pretty darned rare on the GMAT. "Standalone" pronouns have no referent, so they're also called non-referential pronouns, if you like jargon.

The thing is, standalone pronouns only make sense in very limited circumstances. Your example is fine: "The rain made it challenging to drive on the freeway." We're not saying that the rain is challenging for anybody in particular. The rain just "makes it challenging" in general -- not for any particular person or group of people.

That's not what's happening in this question at all: "Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action... makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble..." In this case, SOMEBODY has to actually miss the signs of incipient trouble, or else the sentence makes no sense. Logically, the "heavy commitment to a course of action" makes EXECUTIVES more likely to miss signs of incipient trouble. The pronoun actually needs a referent -- otherwise, the phrase doesn't convey the intended meaning.

So yes, it's true that some pronouns don't actually need a referent. But unless you're super-advanced in SC already, I don't recommend thinking about them at all. I can only think of one or two official SC questions that include "standalone" or "non-referential" pronouns, so they're not a major issue. But if you start to imagine that "normal" pronouns don't actually need a referent, that can cause all sorts of problems. More than 99% of pronouns on the GMAT require a referent, and the exceptions aren't worth worrying about too much.

I hope this helps!
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Any verb+ing such as 'singing or 'sleeping' that starts a sentence and followed by its doer and its subject is indeed proper modification and is accepted as grammatical except in the case of 'being'. In the case of 'being' that is used as a participle and modifier, the usage is said to be bad in style, redundant and taboo.

However, 'being' used as a part of progressive tense along with another helping verb such as 'is being', or 'are being' is ok. In addition, 'being' used as a gerund in a subject phrase and immediately followed by its verb is also ok.

The takeaway: 'Being' used as part of 'a subject' or ' a verb' is ok, but as a 'participle' or ' modifier' it is not okay.
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susmitha2110 wrote:
i eliminated E , based on comma-subject rule. "Being heavily committed to a course of action, executives......" isn't this the correct form?

Can anyone please shed some light on this.
I'm not sure what the "comma-subject rule" is, but here the being is actually the subject of the sentence.

Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
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Raxit85 wrote:
Thanks for prompt response.

But how can one easily identify that -ing form (at the very beginning of the sentence) works as a gerund or modifier??
We could identify the main verb and then take a call on what its subject is. Some patterns we could watch out for:

1. Being, clause ← This being could be the type of modifier (participle) at the very beginning of the sentence that needs the logical noun after the comma.

2. Being verb ← But if we don't have a comma, the being could be the subject of the sentence.

3. Being, modifier, verb ← When we have a modifier in between two commas, those commas don't exist as far as the being and the verb are concerned (Being, modifier, verb), so (3) is just a variation of (2).
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A. Who will miss those signs? Not clear. The two "it"s refer to two different things. 1st = course of action. 2nd = placeholder.

B. this sentence reads - "an executive ... makes ... missing signs of trouble likely" - clearly illogical. "ones" is incorrect. We need "them". The pronoun "one" can only refer to a subset of the noun to which it refers, not the entire thing.

C. "especially if it " is too far away from "course of action" and thus is inferior to the placement in option E.

D. The pronoun 'them' has no antecedent. It cannot refer to the possessive noun executives'. "miss signs" and "misinterpreting them" are not parallel.

E. is the best option!

Hope this helps!
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waihoe520 wrote:
Thanks, touch rule doesn't apply to the SV agreement?

At best, touch rule would apply to modifiers.
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varotkorn wrote:
So, if I added the highlighted portion, then would choice A. be ok?

Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes IT likely FOR THE EXECUTIVE to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


At a glance it looks technically correct, but it's still bad writing. You'd always say "that the executive will miss signs" and not "for the executive to miss signs", because then the verb has a subject. And compare this with the correct answer, which is not only clearer, but also does not include both "by an executive" and "for the executive". Sentences sometimes need repetition like that for clarity, but when they don't, it's best avoided.
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shanks2020 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja AndrewN

Why can't "IT" in option A act as a placeholder pronoun?

Hello, shanks2020. I think Marty Murray did an excellent job exploring this very question above, in this post. It should help answer your question.

Happy reading, and thank you for thinking to ask me about this question.

- Andrew
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Rubal733 wrote:
GMATNinja wrote:
Quote:
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.


There are lots of pronoun issues in the other answer choices, but we're all good with (E): the ambiguous "it" we saw in (C) isn't here at all, and "them" and "they" very clearly refer to "signs of incipient trouble." The subject "being heavily committed to a course of action" works nicely with the main verb phrase ("is likely to make an executive miss signs of trouble..."), so (E) is an upgrade from (B).

That leaves "being" as the only reasonable objection to (E). But "being" is absolutely fine here: it's just a noun, also known as a gerund in this case. "Being" is no different than any other gerund. So (E) is our answer.

Please see last Monday's Topic of the Week for more on gerunds and other "-ing" words on the GMAT: https://gmatclub.com/forum/experts-topi ... 39780.html.



'Being heavily committed' should directly modifies the ' Executive'? should't it?
for the same reason i cancelled E out.

"Being" is actually the subject of the sentence in this case and functions as a noun, not a modifier: "Being {...} is likely to make..." For more on "being", check out this article.
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GMATNinja Thanks for this insight. Small tips here and there seem like they can move oceans on test day.

How do we recognize whether being is a 'gerund'? Are there any ways to identify that? Whenever I read 'being' or any gerund for that matter, most of the time they just seem like verbs to me.
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EMPOWERgmatVerbal wrote:
Hello Everyone!

Let's tackle this question, one problem at at time, and narrow it down to the correct choice! To begin, let's take a closer look at the original question, and highlight any major differences we spot in orange:

Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.
B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.
C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.
D. Executives' being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.
E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

After a quick glance over the options, we have a few areas we can focus on. However, this is a question where the entire sentence is underlined, so we need to treat this differently than we do other questions! Whenever you see a question with the entire sentence underlined, there are a few areas you should pay attention to first to narrow down your options:

1. Modifiers
2. Parallelism
3. Meaning
4. Structure


Let's start with #3 on our list: meaning. There is also another glaring difference we see throughout each of the options: PRONOUNS! There are a LOT of pronouns in these sentences, so let's do a quick check to make sure all the pronouns have clear antecedents, and rule out any that don't:

A. Heavy commitment by an executive to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes it likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

first "it" = refers to "course of action" --> OK
second "it" = doesn't refer to anything, so we call this a "dummy pronoun" --> WRONG
"them" = refers to "signs of incipient trouble" --> OK

B. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that worked well in the past, makes missing signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting ones likely when they do appear.

"one" = unclear; could refer to either "An executive" or "a course of action" --> WRONG
"ones" = misleading; changes meaning from referring to "signs of incipient trouble" to some other signs we haven't mentioned yet --> WRONG

C. An executive who is heavily committed to a course of action is likely to miss or misinterpret signs of incipient trouble when they do appear, especially if it has worked well in the past.

"they" = unclear; could refer to "An executive," "a course of action," or "signs of incipient trouble" --> WRONG
"it" = refers back to "a course of action" --> OK

D. Executives' being heavily committed to a course of action, especially if it has worked well in the past, makes them likely to miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpreting them when they do appear.

"it" = refers to "a course of action" --> OK
first "them" = refers to "Executives" --> WRONG (see below)
second "them" = refers to "signs" --> WRONG (see below)

So why are both "them" pronouns wrong? Because placing two of the same pronoun so close together is confusing to readers. It's too ambiguous which "them" is referring to which antecedent. Yes, you could do the hard work and figure it out, but reading shouldn't require the reader to do the heavy lifting.

E. Being heavily committed to a course of action, especially one that has worked well in the past, is likely to make an executive miss signs of incipient trouble or misinterpret them when they do appear.

"one" = refers to "a course of action" --> OK
"them" = refers to "signs of incipient trouble" --> OK

Well there you have it - option E is the correct choice! It's the only sentence that used clear pronouns.


Don't study for the GMAT. Train for it.



In option C, " They" is supposed to refer to a plural noun, in this case, the only choice is " signs of incipient troubles", so the use of " They" is unambiguous.
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