1. According to the passage, it can be inferred that:
answer is
d) Early Keynesian analyses did not allow for a Keynesian multiplier for income changes with regard to marginal propensity to consume.lets reason out and eliminate other options :
A. When a household’s income increases, its marginal propensity to consume decreases:
this is against the facts of the passage : MPC is
is a related metric that quantifies induced consumption, the idea that as income increases a consumer’s consumption will also increase. so decrease in consumption is against the facts in passage , so ruled out B. Most households cannot accurately delineate between permanent and temporary changes in income:
this is recycled language from passage not taking care of precision in the language as passage states that it is often quite difficult to designate a particular change in income as being permanent or temporary , so nowhere it can refer to most households as often means many and also difficult to designate does not qualify it to be cannot accurately delineate ,so ruled out C. Decreases in income generally lead to short-run increases in marginal propensity to consume.
: precision in language needs to be taken care here , passage states that Short-term decreases in income do not lead to reductions in consumption, because people reduce savings to stabilize consumption , so nowhere this can be taken as increase in marginal propensity to consume , so ruled out D. Early Keynesian analyses did not allow for a Keynesian multiplier for income changes with regard to marginal propensity to consume
:
bang on this is the answer as para 3 in passage states that with regards to permanent and temporary income change larger keynesian multiplier be used ( which was ignored in earliest keynesian analyses )- (passage excerpt) This implies that the Keynesian multiplier – the measure of that consumption’s impact on additional consumption in the marketplace – should be larger in response to permanent changes in income than it is in response to temporary changes in income (though the earliest Keynesian analyses ignored these subtleties)E. In the short run, it is impossible for a household to have a negative marginal propensity to consume :
this is extreme and very strong language and cannot be accounted for using the scope and facts in the passage ,so this is ruled out 2. According to the passage, Keynesian multipliers should be larger for permanent changes in income than for temporary changes in income because:
answer is d) Consumers have less incentive to increase their consumption due to temporary income than due to permanent income. A. The distinction between permanent and temporary is often difficult to categorize :
this is true fact but this is not the reason why Keynesian multipliers should be larger for permanent changes in income than for temporary changes in income , so ruled out B. Consumers are more likely to spend temporary income than permanent income :
This is against the facts in the passage and is actually reversal of facts as consumer is more likely to spend permanent income than temporary one , so its ruled out C. The prevailing interest rate is an important factor that consumers generally consider when deciding to spend temporary income :
this is not the reason why Keynesian multipliers should be larger for permanent changes in income than for temporary changes in income , so ruled out D. Consumers have less incentive to increase their consumption due to temporary income than due to permanent income :
yes this is correct actually this is the comparison language just flipped and is consistent with the passage excerpt -if consumers expect a change in income to be permanent, then they have a greater incentive to increase their consumption (para 3)E. Average propensity to consume is less variant than marginal propensity to consume :
this is true but this is not the reason why Keynesian multipliers should be larger for permanent changes in income than for temporary changes in income , so ruled out 3. The primary purpose of the passage is to:
answer is d)Explain the concept of marginal propensity to consume and its variance among different types and levels of income.A. Predict that marginal propensity to consume is higher for permanent income than for temporary income :
this is limited in scope and is just mentioned in para 3 and thus cannot be the primary purpose alone .B. Explain how the standard Keynesian model differentiates between marginal propensity to consume and average propensity to consume:
This is just mentioned in para 2 and is too limited in scope and thus cannot be the primary purpose alone C. Argue that marginal propensity to consume converges with average propensity to consume as incomes become substantially higher :
this is just mentioned in para 2 and is too limited in scope and thus cannot be the primary purpose alone .D. Explain the concept of marginal propensity to consume and its variance among different types and levels of income :
bang on this is what author does , in first para author explains MPC , then in second para discusses its variance based on levels of income and in third para he discusses MPC's variance in case of different types of incomes - permanent and temporary , thus it covers full scope of the passage and is the ideal answer for primary purpose E. Detail the implication of higher income and wealth levels on a household’s marginal propensity to consume: t
his is just part of para 2 is too limited in scope and thus cannot be the primary purpose alone