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Bunuel
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Bunuel
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Hello,
Can you please explain the first statement when a>1. I din't get how you derived the equation from a!+a.

\(a! = (a-1)!*a\), so you can factor \(a\) out of \(a!+a\) to get \(a((a−1)!+1)\).
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Would someone be able to explain statement 2? I am unsure how " (a+1)!(a+1)!, must have only 2's or/and 5's in its prime factorization, which is only possible if (a+1)!=2!=2(a+1)!=2!=2 (all other factorials 3!, 4!, 5!, have primes other than 2 and 5 in them)" was derived

Thanks.
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Would someone be able to explain statement 2? I am unsure how " (a+1)!(a+1)!, must have only 2's or/and 5's in its prime factorization, which is only possible if (a+1)!=2!=2(a+1)!=2!=2 (all other factorials 3!, 4!, 5!, have primes other than 2 and 5 in them)" was derived

Thanks.

THEORY:

A reduced fraction \(\frac{a}{b}\) (meaning that the fraction is already in its simplest form, so reduced to its lowest term) can be expressed as a terminating decimal if and only if the denominator \(b\) is of the form \(2^n5^m\), where \(m\) and \(n\) are non-negative integers. For example: \(\frac{7}{250}\) is a terminating decimal \(0.028\), as the denominator \(250\) equals \(2*5^3\). The fraction \(\frac{3}{30}\) is also a terminating decimal, as \(\frac{3}{30}=\frac{1}{10}\) and the denominator \(10=2*5\).

Note that if the denominator already consists of only 2s and/or 5s, then it doesn't matter whether the fraction is reduced or not.

For example, \(\frac{x}{2^n5^m}\), (where \(x\), \(n\), and \(m\) are integers) will always be a terminating decimal.

(We need to reduce the fraction in case the denominator has a prime other than 2 or 5, to see whether it can be reduced. For example, the fraction \(\frac{6}{15}\) has 3 as a prime in the denominator, and we need to know if it can be reduced.)

Check below for more:
Math: Number Theory
How to Identify Terminating Decimals on the GMAT
Terminating Decimals in Data Sufficiency on the GMAT
Terminating and Recurring Decimals


Even more:
ALL YOU NEED FOR QUANT ! ! !
Ultimate GMAT Quantitative Megathread


Hope it helps.
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Thanks for the explanation.

I only got lost at (a+1)! = 2!. What happens if (a+1)! = 5!? Since the prime factorization of the denominator must have 2 or/and 5?

Regards,
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Kartalyst
Thanks for the explanation.

I only got lost at (a+1)! = 2!. What happens if (a+1)! = 5!? Since the prime factorization of the denominator must have 2 or/and 5?

Regards,

5! = 5*4*3*2*1.

In this case, since the denominator would have factors other than 2 and 5, the fraction would never result in a terminating decimal. The thread contains the relevant theory explained by Bunuel. Hope it clears the confusion.
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what if a=0 then ?
0 is also a integer
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jayditya
what if a=0 then ?
0 is also a integer

a cannot be 0 because we are told that a is a positive integer (What is the value of positive integer a?), while 0 is neither positive nor negative.


ZERO:

1. Zero is an INTEGER.

2. Zero is an EVEN integer.

3. Zero is neither positive nor negative (the only one of this kind)

4. Zero is divisible by EVERY integer except 0 itself (\(\frac{x}{0} = 0\), so 0 is a divisible by every number, x).

5. Zero is a multiple of EVERY integer (\(x*0 = 0\), so 0 is a multiple of any number, x)

6. Zero is NOT a prime number (neither is 1 by the way; the smallest prime number is 2).

7. Division by zero is NOT allowed: anything/0 is undefined.

8. Any non-zero number to the power of 0 equals 1 (\(x^0 = 1\))

9. \(0^0\) case is NOT tested on the GMAT.

10. If the exponent n is positive (n > 0), \(0^n = 0\).

11. If the exponent n is negative (n < 0), \(0^n\) is undefined, because \(0^{negative}=0^n=\frac{1}{0^{(-n)}} = \frac{1}{0}\), which is undefined. You CANNOT take 0 to the negative power.

12. \(0! = 1! = 1\).



2. Properties of Integers



For more check Ultimate GMAT Quantitative Megathread



Hope it helps.
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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