Shiv2016
Hello
e-gmat team
Use of which and that is correct in the sentence as per the rule which and that must clearly refer to the preceding noun. But you have explained here that use of which is illogical.
It's not very clear to me and I am still trying to understand the difference between that and which in this sentence. Please help.
Dear
Shiv2016,
I'm happy to respond.
The use of "
which" and "
that" throughout the answer choices is correct. That is the wrong place to look to find the flaws. One of the many features that makes this such an effective SC question is that some students will waste valuable time getting hung up on the "
that"/"
which" split rather than pay attention to the features that make a real difference.
PiyushK
@
e-gmat:
Could you please help answer my query as well.
OG-12#55
OG explanation for option D and E says "applying following a non restrictive clause suggests incorrectly that the builders, not the family, are applying the rent."
I have seen many sentence structures such as "main clause + restrictive clause, -ing modifier ..." in which participle modifier can modify either of the clause main or restrictive, depends on sentence, but I am not aware of such rule that participle modifier can jump over non restrictive clause and modify the subject of main clause. Could you please shed some light on this ?
I'm happy to respond.
My friends, you are asking for a mathematical cut-and-dry rule for something that is far more subtle. There is simply not a one-size-fits-all rule for this scenario. It is a matter of logic and rhetorical feel.
Look at version (E)
Many house builders offer rent-to-buy programs, which enable a family with insufficient savings for a conventional down payment to be able to move into new housing, applying part of the rent to a purchase later.
As I am sure you understand, the terminology
-ing modifier is sloppy and imprecise. Here, what we have is
participle "
applying." As we see from the prompt and from (B), the intended target of this noun-modifier is "
a family"--this family is the one who will perform the action of "
applying." This target noun, though, is merely a direct object of a verb inside a relative clause. Rhetorically, it is about as unemphasized as we could make a noun, and yet we are expecting the participle to point to this noun clearly as a target. That's awkward. That's why (E) is a spectacular failure.
You see, in an effective sentence, grammar and logic and rhetorical all reinforce each other, to produce a powerful and unambiguous meaning. If we analyze this purely at the level of grammar, we are missing 2/3 of the story.
It is impossible to get to GMAT SC mastery by learning some mythical "complete" set of rules. Language doesn't work that way. if you want to develop SC master, you need to develop a habit of reading. Reading will help you develop the intuition to see how grammar and rhetoric and logic all work together. See:
How to Improve Your GMAT Verbal Scorechesstitans
hello, I have a question, I did have a struggle with this question because I did not recognize the structure for....to...., then I realize that the actual structure is "with...for..."
1/ "for sb to do sth" is informal in gmat so this structure will not be tested, right?
Dear
chesstitans,
I'm happy to respond.
My friend, you are confusing a few different things. The technical name for the structure "
to do something" is called an
infinitive. On the rare occasion that we specify a subject with an infinitive, that subject always becomes the object of the preposition "
for."
For a person to commit this crime is almost unthinkable.
If we were specifying a subject for the preposition, we always would situation that subject as the object of the preposition "for." This is NOT an informal structure. This is a rigorously correct structure that appears on the GMAT SC in correct answers.
Here, say in (B), the infinitive "
to move" doesn't have a subject. Many times, infinitives don't have any subject at all. Instead, this is an idiomatic structure, a
verb that idiomatically takes the infinitive. The idiom with the verb "
enable" is
enable {person/people] to do {thing] The fundamental structure in that part of the sentence is
. . . programs that enable a family . . . to move . . . That's the core structure, but the noun "
family" is too vague and needs a vital noun modifier to make clear its identity. Here, a pair of prepositional phrases, "
with insufficient savings for a conventional down payment" serves as the
vital noun modifier. This is absolutely unrelated to the infinitive.
Does all this make sense?
Mike