Not trusting themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market, stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to them to buy stocks that could be easily bought directly. (A) stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to them to buy stocks that could be easily (B) stockbrokers are helping many people who are turning to them for help in buying stocks that they could easily have (C) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help from them to buy stocks that could be easily (D) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help to buy stocks that easily could have been (E) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be Stockbrokers (A) Modifier / Meaning (B) Modifier / Meaning; Meaning / Redundancy; Pronoun / Meaning (C) Idiom (for help to buy); Meaning / Redundancy (D) Idiom (for help to buy) (E) CORRECT First glance The underline starts just after a comma and there’s a clear split: stockbrokers or many people? The meaning of the sentence will dictate which group needs to be placed just after the comma. Issues (1) Modifier / Meaning The sentence begins with an opening modifier, describing people who don’t trust themselves to choose wisely among investment opportunities. It’s illogical to describe stockbrokers in this way. Rather, many people don’t trust themselves and so turn to stockbrokers for help. Eliminate choices (A) and (B). (2) Meaning / Redundancy Answers (B) and (C) both contain redundant wording. (B) stockbrokers are helping many people who are turning to them for help In the case of answer (B), it would be enough to say that stockbrokers are helping many people, or possibly that stockbrokers are helping many people who are turning to them. (C) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help from them In the case of answer (C), the expression turning to someone for help already means that you are looking for help from that person. For example, it is enough to say that Mary turns to Yong for help. It is redundant to say that Mary turns to Yong for help from him. (3) Pronoun / Meaning: them ; they The pronoun them appears in answers (A), (B), and (C). The pronoun they appears in choice (B). Check the antecedents. Answers (A) and (C) are acceptable because the structure of the sentence makes clear that them refers to the stockbrokers (and this is logical, too). In answer (B), them again refers to the stockbrokers, but the they is problematic. First, the pronoun them implies that a later pronoun of the same case (they) is likely to refer to the same noun. This does not always have to be the case—the referent can change, as long as the sentence structure shows clearly that the second pronoun refers to a different noun. In this case, though, the they is a subject pronoun and stockbrokers is also the subject of the sentence, so a second clue implies that they refers to stockbrokers. Logically, however, they should be the people, not the stockbrokers. It would be better not to have this ambiguity in the sentence—and, indeed, the correct answer removes these pronouns altogether. Eliminate choice (B) for an ambiguous pronoun. (4) Idiom: for help to buy Answers (B) and (E) use the idiom for help in buying. Answers (C) and (D) use the idiom for help to buy. Answer (A) uses a different structure entirely. The correct idiom is for help in (doing something). Eliminate answers (C) and (D) for using a faulty idiom. The Correct Answer Correct answer (E) places the subject, many people, just after the opening modifier, properly signaling who doesn’t trust themselves to choose wisely. It also uses the correct idiom for help in (buying).

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10 Aug 2021, 10:05

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A good Q. on infinitives vs verb with "ing".
But this Q. can be solved without paying attention to infinitive vs -ing

A and B are out bcz of wrong subject. "Not trusting themselves" refers to "people" .
C is out bcz of wrong pronoun usage "them"

D vs E

one point of diff is "could have been" refers to an action for the past. "could be " refers future...
Note:
"Could" has no tenses, no participles, and no infinitive form. There is no past tense, but "could have" followed by a past participle is used for referring to something in the past that was not real, or something that may possibly have been real: I could have been killed.

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03 Oct 2021, 03:37

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Hi IanStewart I chose D in this question because it uses infinitive form and here it made more sense. I am not able to understand the part "that could easily have been vs that could easily be" . Both are the events of past. Can you please explain it?

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28 Oct 2021, 06:43

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GMATNinja

Unless you’re brand-new here (and if you are, welcome to GMAT Club!), you probably know that “-ing” modifiers are a pretty common thing on GMAT SC (more on the GMAT’s various uses of “-ing” words here).

In this particular case, if we start the sentence with “not trusting themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities…”, we’ll eventually need to follow that phrase with a group of people that wouldn’t actually trust themselves to choose among those investment opportunities…

Quote:

(A) stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to them to buy stocks that could be easily

… and the “stockbrokers” probably aren’t going to make sense here. The stockbrokers presumably trust themselves to choose stocks. So (A) is clearly wrong.

You could also argue that the pronoun “them” is a problem in (A). The most recent plural is “people” – but we know that “them” should logically refer to “stockbrokers” (“stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to [stockbrokers]…”).

I’m not sure that the use of “them” is definitively WRONG, though: the antecedent “stockbrokers” isn’t so far away, and if “them” was referring to “people”, then it would probably say “themselves.” And as you may know, pronoun ambiguity isn’t an absolute rule, anyway.

So you might be able to accept the pronoun “them”, but because of the “-ing” modifier, (A) is out.

Quote:

(B) stockbrokers are helping many people who are turning to them for help in buying stocks that they could easily have

This basically has the exact same error as in (A): literally, this is saying that the stockbrokers don’t trust themselves to pick stocks, and that can’t be right.

(B) also introduces an extra pronoun, “they” – and I think it’s more problematic than the “them.” It’s just getting messy and confusing now: “them” reaches back to “stockbrokers”, but then the next pronoun, “they”, refers back to “people” again? That’s truly confusing. (B) is gone.

Quote:

We’ve fixed the logic of that “-ing” modifier, but now there are new problems. The biggest problem is that (C) is redundant now: “people are turning to stockbrokers for help from them to buy stocks…” There’s absolutely no reason to say “from them” here. It’s enough to just say “people are turning to stockbrokers for help.”

A much, much smaller issue: the GMAT seems to prefer the idiom “help in buying” over “help to buy.” (A similar official SC question deals with “aid in healing” vs. “aid to heal” – basically the same issue.) Personally, I don’t see any problem with saying “help to buy”, and I wouldn’t cross out (C) based solely on the idiom – but for whatever it’s worth, I suspect that the GMAT sees “help to buy” as incorrect in this question. I’m just not convinced that you’ll ever see this particular idiom ever again, since there are about 25,000 of them in English.

In any case, the redundancy thing is a pretty big issue. (C) is gone.

Let’s put the last two side-by-side, since the differences between them are pretty small:

Quote:

(D) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help to buy stocks that easily could have been
E) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be

There are really only two things going on here. First, we have the idiom: “help to buy” in (D), vs. “help in buying” in (E). As we mentioned above, the GMAT seems to prefer “help in buying” – but I again, I wouldn’t bet my life on that.

And in general, I don’t worry much about idioms, unless I’m CERTAIN about them. More on that here: https://gmatclub.com/forum/experts-topi ... 41848.html

But as we discussed in our beginner’s guide to SC, meaning is a really, really big deal on the GMAT. And the only other difference between (D) and (E) – at the end of the underlined portion – is the key to the question.

In (D), we have “stocks that easily could have been bought directly”, and that doesn’t completely make sense, since it suggests that the stocks could have been bought directly – in the past! Then why is it that people “are turning to stockbrokers” now – in the present progressive tense, which can ONLY be used for an action that’s happening right now?

(E) fixes that problem: it just uses the conditional tense “could easily be bought directly”, which makes much more sense with the fact that people “are turning to stockbrokers” now.

So (E) is the correct answer, even if you don’t pay much attention to the idiom.

Ouch! I completely fell for that 'past tense' trap.
I can even hear Chris (Gmat NInja) say, when you are down to the last two options, compare the differences for meaning.
Guess this is all part of the learning journey

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01 Jan 2022, 10:42

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Could easily be bought (past tense) then how can we say it is present tense?
Please help

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06 Apr 2022, 08:46

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arpita1995

(D) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help to buy stocks that easily could have been

(E) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be

Is there a diference between could easily be bought vs easily could be bought

Hi DmitryFarber

It is helpful to know the difference between "could easily be bought directly" vs "could be easily bought directly".

Can you also compare this with "easily could be bought directly"?

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02 Nov 2022, 09:08

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GMATNinja

adkikani

GMATNinja sayantanc2k generis
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Can you please confirm if SIMPLE FUTURE tense in (E) is the only one that makes sense
in the context of sentence?

I'm not sure that I understand the question, but I'll give it a shot!

Quote:

(E) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be

In (E), "are turning" is actually a form of the present tense -- if you like jargon, it's the present progressive tense, which means that it's in the present, but the "-ing" emphasizes that it's an ongoing action in the present. (More on "-ing" verbs here.)

Could you use another form of the verb here? I guess simple present ("turn" instead of "are turning") would be fine, too -- it's just that simple present describes a general characteristic, and it seems that the sentence is trying to emphasize that this change in investor behavior is happening right now. So present progressive ("are turning") is arguably better, but it wouldn't be wrong to choose simple present.

The second verb, the "could be" in the phrase "could easily be bought directly" isn't in the future tense, either -- it's present tense, but the phrase "could be" indicates possibility. If it helps, replace "could" with "can", and the meaning is reasonably similar in this particular sentence.

(E) makes sense since both verbs are in some form of the present tense. I suppose that we could rewrite this in the future tense, but it would very dramatically change the meaning of the sentence.

I'm not sure if I answered your question, but I hope this helps!

In Gmat, are 'could' and 'can' same? Isn't "could" the past form of "can"? I am really confused with the usage of "could" here in present tense.

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03 Dec 2022, 23:25

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The sentence starts with a modifier "Not trusting themselves to choose wisely......."

This modifier can not modify "stockbrokers"

Eliminate A and B

In option C

"people are turning to stockbrokers for help from them"

Here, "them refer back to stockbrokers". This makes it redundant.

Eliminate C

In option D

"easily could have been bought" refers to an action in the past.

But, the sentence talks about present.

Eliminate D

Hence, E is the correct answer.

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22 Apr 2023, 03:42

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@Experts' Global,

Hello Experts' Global Team,

I have a doubt between option D and E. As per infinitive verb rule, To+Verb is used if the intent of an action is shown and Present Participle is used when the quality of a noun is shown. Hence, basis this rule, option D should not be eliminated.
Pls help.
Thanks

ExpertsGlobal5

Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-

thanhmaitran

Not trusting themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market, stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to them to buy stocks that could be easily bought directly.

(A) stockbrokers are helping many people who turn to them to buy stocks that could be easily

(B) stockbrokers are helping many people who are turning to them for help in buying stocks that they could easily have

(C) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help from them to buy stocks that could be easily

(D) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help to buy stocks that easily could have been

(E) many people are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be

Meaning is crucial to solving this problem:
Understanding the intended meaning is key to solving this question; the intended meaning of this sentence is that many people do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market, so they are turning to stockbrokers for help in buying stocks that could easily be bought directly.

Concepts tested here: Meaning + Modifiers + Awkwardness/Redundancy

• In a “phrase + comma + noun” construction, the phrase must correctly modify the noun; this is one of the most frequently tested concepts on GMAT sentence correction.
• The "adverb + verb" construction is preferred over the "verb + adverb" construction.
• A pronoun can only be used to refer to one noun in a sentence.
• Information that is permanent in nature is best conveyed through the simple present tense.
• The present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.

A: This answer choice incorrectly uses "Not trusting themselves...market" to modify "stockbrokers", incorrectly implying that the stockbrokers do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market; the intended meaning is that many people do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market; please remember, in a “phrase + comma + noun” construction, the phrase must correctly modify the noun. Additionally, Option A uses the "verb ("be" in this sentence) + adverb ("easily" in this sentence)" construction rather than the "adverb + verb" construction; please remember, the "adverb + verb" construction is preferred over the "verb + adverb" construction.

B: This answer choice incorrectly uses "Not trusting themselves...market" to modify "stockbrokers", incorrectly implying that the stockbrokers do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market; the intended meaning is that many people do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market; please remember, in a “phrase + comma + noun” construction, the phrase must correctly modify the noun. Further, Option B incorrectly uses "them" to refer to "stockbrokers" and "they" to refer to "people"; please remember, a pronoun and its derivatives can only be sued to refer to one noun in a sentence. Moreover, Option B incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have bought" to refer to information that is permanent in nature; please remember, information that is permanent in nature is best conveyed through the simple present tense, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.

C: This answer choice uses the needlessly wordy phrase "help from them", leading to awkwardness and redundancy; this usage is redundant, as "from them" could be deleted without a loss of clarity. Further, Option C uses the "verb ("be" in this sentence) + adverb ("easily" in this sentence)" construction rather than the "adverb + verb" construction; please remember, the "adverb + verb" construction is preferred over the "verb + adverb" construction.

D: This answer choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have...bought" to refer to information that is permanent in nature; please remember, information that is permanent in nature is best conveyed through the simple present tense, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.

E: This answer choice correctly uses "Not trusting themselves...market" to modify "many people", conveying the intended meaning - that many people do not trust themselves to choose wisely among the wide array of investment opportunities on the market. Moreover, Option E avoids the pronoun error seen in Option B, as it employs no pronouns. Further, Option E correctly uses the simple present tense verb "be bought" to refer to information that is permanent in nature. Additionally, Option E uses the preferred construction "adverb ("easily" in this sentence) + verb ("be" in this sentence)". Besides, Option E is free of any awkwardness or redundancy.

Hence, E is the best answer choice.

To understand the concept of "Simple Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):

To understand the concept of "Simple Continuous Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):

To understand the concept of "Phrase Comma Subject" and "Subject Comma Phrase" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1minute):

All the best!
Experts' Global Team

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02 Jun 2023, 02:52

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Could is used as the past tense of "can" when it means that someone had the ability to do something, or that something was possible.
In that case, even E is in past tense.
If could is past tense, then how "could be" is present or future possibility?

Can you please help to understand the usage of could in different tenses?

Thanks!

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05 Jun 2023, 10:04

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DmitryFarber

Revankumar
If we want to modify "be bought," then we should put "easily" in front of the whole phrase, not in the middle. Since 2) breaks up "be bought," the implication is that "easily" applies only to "bought." So the meaning of 1) is that one can buy these stocks with ease. This fits the intended meaning. The meaning of 2) is less clear, but the split of the verb phrase might imply that the meaning is "It could be true that these stocks are easily bought." That wouldn't fit what we want.

So what is the issue in meaning 2? it still seems to convey the same meaningg as 1. pls clarifty DmitryFarber

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05 Jun 2023, 13:35

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Elite097

DmitryFarber

So what is the issue in meaning 2? it still seems to convey the same meaningg as 1. pls clarifty DmitryFarber

You're right that both options seem to convey the same general idea, but there is a subtle difference in which part of the phrase "easily" modifies, which affects the clarity and accuracy of the intended meaning.

In 1, "easily" is placed in front of the whole phrase "be bought," so it modifies the entire action of buying stocks, emphasizing that the stocks can be bought with ease.

In 2, by placing "easily" in between "be" and "bought," the phrase is split, which might imply that "easily" applies only to "bought." This less clear meaning can be interpreted as "It could be true that these stocks are easily bought," which doesn't fit the intended meaning as accurately as 1.