daagh wrote:
There are a few things that I wish to tell those who are fresh to GMAT Prepping.
1. One must be clear about the difference between the use of because of and due to. One might have heard frequently that 'because of' is a verb modifier and 'due to' is a noun modifier. However, many mistake this to modify the word that follows 'of' in 'because of' and 'to' in 'due to'. Please realize that what follows these prepositions will always be a noun or noun phrase or a pronoun. No exceptions to that norm and one cannot claim that both 'because of' and 'due to' are modifying nouns.
What is important is what goes before these prepositional phrases. If you want to use 'because of' there should be an active verb of action in the prior part, in addition to any other "state verb" that might be there.
EX: The financial markets have been so globalized that it is a boon to the money launderers because of allowing...
You can see that prior to 'because of', there is an active verb 'have been so globalized'.
This is, in fact, the verb 'because of' modifies and hence it is called a verb modifier.
On the contrary, look at the following sentence:
The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to money launderers, due to allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred to a branch in a more regulated one.
You might see that the verb 'have been globalized' is now converted into a noun 'globalization.' This the noun the 'due to' phrase is actually modifying. Hence, 'due to' is called a noun modifier.
As per the above norm, 'because of' in both A and B are wrong as 'because of' cannot modify the noun globalization.
The second point is about subjunctive mood. Many are tending to misuse or even abuse the words 'allow' and 'that' as subjunctive mood elements. We may perhaps use 'that' in command subjunctive moods, but every time we use 'that', it need not be subjunctive. In addition, the word 'allows' has no connotation to subjunctive mood what so ever; it expresses neither a wish nor a command nor mandatoriness. It is a simple indicative verb. Therefore, 'allows that' in C does not require using a subjunctive mood verb.
[quote="daagh"]
Thanks for your explanation.
I have two doubts
1.The globalization of financial-services companies has been a boon to money launders, because of allowing money placed in a bank in a less regulated jurisdiction to be transferred to a branch in a more regulated one.
In the above sentence what is the role of has been .i understand its past perfect but what is the verb in the sentence.
2. I keep seeing subjunctive mood , but not sure of its use . Any good article or anything you can please help with.
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