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sumisachan
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sumisachan
Afc0892
Correct Idiom is From X to Y. X and Y should be parallel.

D maintains the parallelism. Hence, D is the answer

Idiom is maintained in case of C as well. Why is C incorrect?

C is wordy.

Posted from my mobile device
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Iam sorry, but i dont get it.

Which was never been explained?

May I request an expert to opine?

aragonn generis
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Bunuel request your help here.
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Hello,

IMO C should be the correct answer.

Option D changes meaning by saying "which was never been explained", this implies now there is an explanation.

Will wait for OA and expert's explanation.

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Psychologists have attributed the strange behaviour of teenagers to everything from having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained, to their irresponsibility.


A. having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained,

B. having a rash behaviour, which was never explained,

C. their rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,

D. their rash behaviour, which was never been explained,

E. having rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,
fitzpratik , I think there is a typo in in D.
Should be which Has never been explained.

"Was never been" is not grammatically correct, ever.
"Was been" is never correct. That construction joins simple third person past form of TO BE with past participle of TO BE.

The participle "been" takes have/has as its companion -- never IS, ARE, WAS, WERE, WOULD, COULD, etc.

The incorrect coupling of these two forms of TO BE (was been) creates a phrase so unintelligible that I cannot explain it.

sumisachan please check.

Please list the source of the question.?

And if there is indeed a typo in D, then both C and D are "correct."

This question is of poor quality. Don't worry about it.

Psychologists have attributed STRANGE behavior of teenagers to everything from their RASH behavior, which "Has" never been explained, to their iresponsibility. (If the meaning of that sentence does not strike as incoherent, then it is time to start rewriting, in your own words, the meaning of official practice questions or QOTDs.)

1) How do you explain strange behavior by referring to impulsive BEHAVIOR [which has never been explained??]

2) What does that lack of explanation have to do with anything? It's not logical.

3) STRANGE behavior might be attributed to rash impulses and irresponsibility, but those two characteristics are not theoretically coherent, either.

Rash impulses and irresponsibility ARE strange behavior.

I would have to argue long and hard that the first two are both significantly distinct from strange behavior and that they are also explanations for strange behavior.

The logic is unsatisfying at best, and circular at worst.

Nor would any self-respecting social scientist explain one behavior ("strange," whatever that word means") by referring to a similar category of behavior (strangely rash behavior).

One behavior does not explain another behavior in this context. The source of strange behavior cannot be rash behavior.

Bunuel , never mind.
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sumisachan
Psychologists have attributed the strange behaviour of teenagers to everything from having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained, to their irresponsibility.


A. having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained,

B. having a rash behaviour, which was never explained,

C. their rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,

D. their rash behaviour, which was never been explained,

E. having rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,
fitzpratik , I think there is a typo in in D.
Should be which Has never been explained.

"Was never been" is not grammatically correct, ever.

sumisachan please check. Please list the source of the question.?

Bunuel , never mind.

Posted from my mobile device


generis thanks, Has does fit right into the answer option.
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fitzpratik
generis
sumisachan
Psychologists have attributed the strange behaviour of teenagers to everything from having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained, to their irresponsibility.


A. having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained,
B. having a rash behaviour, which was never explained,
C. their rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,
D. their rash behaviour, which was never been explained,
E. having rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,
fitzpratik , I think there is a typo in in D.
Should be which Has never been explained.

"Was never been" is not grammatically correct, ever.

sumisachan please check. Please list the source of the question.?
generis thanks, Has does fit right into the answer option.
fitzpratik
I edited my post above to include more comments.

C and D are both correct if D has a typo. I list more issues with the question in that edited response above.
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generis
sumisachan
Psychologists have attributed the strange behaviour of teenagers to everything from having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained, to their irresponsibility.


A. having a rash behaviour, which has never been explained,

B. having a rash behaviour, which was never explained,

C. their rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,

D. their rash behaviour, which was never been explained,

E. having rash behaviour, for which there has never been an explanation,
fitzpratik , I think there is a typo in in D.
Should be which Has never been explained.

"Was never been" is not grammatically correct, ever.
"Was been" is never correct. That construction joins simple third person past form of TO BE with past participle of TO BE.

The participle "been" takes have/has as its companion -- never IS, ARE, WAS, WERE, WOULD, COULD, etc.

The incorrect coupling of these two forms of TO BE (was been) creates a phrase so unintelligible that I cannot explain it.

sumisachan please check.

Please list the source of the question.?

And if there is indeed a typo in D, then both C and D are "correct."

This question is of poor quality. Don't worry about it.

Psychologists have attributed STRANGE behavior of teenagers to everything from their RASH behavior, which "Has" never been explained, to their iresponsibility. (If the meaning of that sentence does not strike as incoherent, then it is time to start rewriting, in your own words, the meaning of official practice questions or QOTDs.)

1) How do you explain strange behavior by referring to impulsive BEHAVIOR [which has never been explained??]

2) What does that lack of explanation have to do with anything? It's not logical.

3) STRANGE behavior might be attributed to rash impulses and irresponsibility, but those two characteristics are not theoretically coherent, either.

Rash impulses and irresponsibility ARE strange behavior.

I would have to argue long and hard that the first two are both significantly distinct from strange behavior and that they are also explanations for strange behavior.

The logic is unsatisfying at best, and circular at worst.

Nor would any self-respecting social scientist explain one behavior ("strange," whatever that word means") by referring to a similar category of behavior (strangely rash behavior).

One behavior does not explain another behavior in this context. The source of strange behavior cannot be rash behavior.

Bunuel , never mind.

generis, I took a mock and encountered this question. :(
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from X to Y is the correct usage
which correctly refers to the rash behaviour
So D is the correct answer

Kudos please

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