Bravo23
GMATNinja Please throw some light o this one
Consider the logic of Sascha’s argument:
- Sascha concludes (albeit at the beginning of the passage) that “the attempt to ban parliament's right to pass directed-spending bills...is antidemocratic.”
- To support this, Sascha notes that only when “stipulated by laws passed by parliament, the branch of government most directly representative of the citizens,” can money be drawn from the treasury.
- And spending “public resources involves the ultimate exercise of state authority.”
But something seems to be missing: why can
only parliament pass directed-spending bills? Can’t we ban parliament’s right to pass directed-spending bills and allow the executive branch, for example, to do so instead?
The correct answer choice should fill the logical gap identified above. In other words, which answer choice bridges the gap between Sascha’s conclusion and his support for that conclusion?
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A. designating funding specifically for the favorite projects of some powerful politicians should be considered antidemocratic
Although it’s possible that Sascha believes such funding should be considered antidemocratic, (A) simply does not connect the dots between spending as the ultimate exercise of state authority, and the conclusion that banning parliament’s right to pass directed-spending bills is antidemocratic. Maybe designating funding for the favorite projects of powerful politicians is antidemocratic, but we still don’t know why we must allow parliament to pass directed-spending bills. Eliminate (A).
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B. the right to exercise such a power should belong exclusively to the branch of government most directly representative of the citizens
If the right to spend public resources “should belong exclusively to the branch of government most directly representative of the citizens” (parliament), then we have reason to believe that
only parliament should be able to spend public resources. This is exactly what (B) says, and it answers the questions we asked above. Hold on to (B).
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C. exercising the power to spend public resources is in most cases—but not all—protected by the constitution
The problem with (C) is that we don’t know when the power to spend public resources is protected. Is parliament’s right to pass directed-spending bills one of those cases protected by the constitution? In the absence of additional information, (C) does little for Sascha’s argument. Eliminate (C).
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D. modifications to any spending bills should be considered expenditures authorized by law
The rest of Sascha’s argument is about a particular type of spending bill (directed-spending bills), not
modifications to spending bills. Therefore, (D) does not fit with the rest of the argument, and we can eliminate it.
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E. only officials who are motivated by concerns for reelection should retain that power
Parliamentary officials are likely motivated by concerns for reelection, but it’s possible that officials in other branches of government are as well. So, (E) doesn’t explain why parliament should be the
only branch of government allowed to pass directed-spending bills. Eliminate (E).
(B) is the only answer choice remaining, and it is correct.
I hope that helps!