VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:

truongynhi wrote:

Hi Karishma,

How could we know that the fatality rate (or the number of fatalities) will increase proportionally with the increase in mileage driven?

In my flawed reasoning, I just simply put the increased denominator, which is the mileage driven (assuming the same number of cars), in the rate formula and consequently concluded that fatality rate increases.

Please correct me. Really appreciate your help.

The point is that fatality rate per highway mile driven does not change if the number of miles driven increases. It is something like this:

Say my speed is 60 miles/hr. I maintain this speed. Does it matter whether I drive for 2 hours at this rate or 4 hours at this rate? Will my speed change if I drive more? No, right? When I drive for more hours, the distance I covered increases.

Similarly, fatality rate per highway mile is a rate which will not change with the change in the number of highway miles driven. If more highway miles are driven, the number of fatalities increase.

Passage - If high speed then fatality will surely happen {among other things equal} 'a general truth sort of thing.

Question stem asks why fatality rate decreased inspite of increase in speed ?

Option D says about avg . mileage driven by cars increased. So it means that per car started travelling more on increased speed which in turn signifies that more travel more fatality. So indirectly it is not solving the paradox but rather restating the premise in a different way. Until we dont bring some external factor into picture as has been brought by option B then fatality cannot be reduced because it is bound to happen if travelling more on high speeds.

Now few contributors have expressed doubt that the ratio of FATALITY / MILES DRIVEN has reduced in option D but in thinking they are indirectly assuming that no fatality is taking place by driving more at high speed.

R.