chetan2u
TIPS for these question :-1)
x and y are positive numbers and x<y or fraction \(\frac{x}{y}<1\)
a) If you ADD same positive number to x and y, the fraction\(\frac{x+a}{y+a}>\frac{x}{y}\)
b) If you subtract same positive number from x and y, the fraction\(\frac{x-a}{y-a}<\frac{x}{y}\)
2)
x and y are positive numbers and x>y or fraction \(\frac{x}{y}>1\)
a) If you ADD same positive number to x and y, the fraction\(\frac{x+a}{y+a}<\frac{x}{y}\)
b) If you subtract same positive number from x and y, the fraction\(\frac{x-a}{y-a}>\frac{x}{y}\)
let's see the choices
1. \(\frac{(x+1)}{(y+1)}>\frac{x}{y}\)
TIP 1a, x<y..
this so happens...
because since x<y, any number will constitue as a larger % of smaller number, so numerator has a BIGGER % changeexample 1 is 50% of 2 but 1 is only 33.33% of 3
suff
2. \(\frac{(x-1)}{(y-1)} < \frac{(x+1)}{(y+1)}\)
combination of tip 1a and 1b
x<y
suff
D
Hello
chetan2u - I have a general question about the property itself
In the highlighted sentence (2a), for the property to hold true, shouldn't the value of a be less than the value of x?
If \(a \geq x\), then the numerator becomes non-positive and we can have \(\frac{(x-a) }{ (y - a) }< \frac{x }{ y}\)
Example :
x = 3; y = 2; a = 1\(\frac{x}{y} < \frac{(x-a)}{(y-a)}\)
\(\frac{3}{2} < \frac{2}{1}\)
⇒ This is in line with the property.x = 3; y = 2; a = 3\(\frac{x}{y} > \frac{(x-a)}{(y-a)}\)
\(\frac{3}{2} > \frac{0}{-1}\)
\(\frac{3}{2} > 0\)
x = 3; y = 2; a = 4\(\frac{x}{y} > \frac{(x-a)}{(y-a)}\)
\(\frac{3}{2} > \frac{-1}{-2}\)
\(\frac{3}{2} > \frac{1}{2}\)
Please let me know if I am missing anything.