Last visit was: 24 Apr 2026, 05:11 It is currently 24 Apr 2026, 05:11
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
3,209
 [50]
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
 [50]
20
Kudos
Add Kudos
30
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
PriyamRathor
Joined: 17 Aug 2021
Last visit: 24 May 2024
Posts: 146
Own Kudos:
124
 [1]
Given Kudos: 167
Location: India
WE:Corporate Finance (Accounting)
Posts: 146
Kudos: 124
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
bb
User avatar
Founder
Joined: 04 Dec 2002
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 43,155
Own Kudos:
83,723
 [3]
Given Kudos: 24,679
Location: United States
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
GPA: 3
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
GMAT 1: 750 Q49 V42
Posts: 43,155
Kudos: 83,723
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
PriyamRathor
Joined: 17 Aug 2021
Last visit: 24 May 2024
Posts: 146
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 167
Location: India
WE:Corporate Finance (Accounting)
Posts: 146
Kudos: 124
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hello CJ ,
Regarding Q 11
ChiranjeevSingh


Quote:
A study of marital relationships in which one partner's sleeping and waking cycles differ from those of the other partner reveals that such couples share fewer activities with each other and have more violent arguments than do couples in a relationship in which both partners follow the same sleeping and waking patterns. Thus, mismatched sleeping and waking cycles can seriously jeopardize a marriage.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?


(A) Married couples in which both spouses follow the same sleeping and waking patterns also occasionally have arguments that can jeopardize the couple's marriage.

(B) The sleeping and waking cycles of individuals tend to vary from season to season.

(C) The individuals who have sleeping and waking cycles that differ significantly from those of their spouses tend to argue little with colleagues at work.

(D) People in unhappy marriages have been found to express hostility by adopting a different sleeping and waking cycle from that of their spouses.

(E) According to a recent study, most people's sleeping and waking cycles can be controlled and modified easily.

Here the causation is :-

mismatched sleeping and waking cycles can seriously jeopardize a marriage.
ie mismatched sleeping and waking cycles ----------> jeopardize a marriage.

So this can be weakened by :-

No mismatched sleeping and waking cycles ------> still jeopardize a marriage
( X didn't happen still Y happened )

Option A is in line with the above reasoning. So why Option A is wrong ?

(A) Married couples in which both spouses follow the same sleeping and waking patterns also occasionally have arguments that can jeopardize the couple's marriage.

Is it because of word occasionally ?

Thanks
User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
3,209
 [3]
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
 [3]
3
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
PriyamRathor
Hello CJ ,
Regarding Q 11
ChiranjeevSingh


Quote:
A study of marital relationships in which one partner's sleeping and waking cycles differ from those of the other partner reveals that such couples share fewer activities with each other and have more violent arguments than do couples in a relationship in which both partners follow the same sleeping and waking patterns. Thus, mismatched sleeping and waking cycles can seriously jeopardize a marriage.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?


(A) Married couples in which both spouses follow the same sleeping and waking patterns also occasionally have arguments that can jeopardize the couple's marriage.

(B) The sleeping and waking cycles of individuals tend to vary from season to season.

(C) The individuals who have sleeping and waking cycles that differ significantly from those of their spouses tend to argue little with colleagues at work.

(D) People in unhappy marriages have been found to express hostility by adopting a different sleeping and waking cycle from that of their spouses.

(E) According to a recent study, most people's sleeping and waking cycles can be controlled and modified easily.

Here the causation is :-

mismatched sleeping and waking cycles can seriously jeopardize a marriage.
ie mismatched sleeping and waking cycles ----------> jeopardize a marriage.

So this can be weakened by :-

No mismatched sleeping and waking cycles ------> still jeopardize a marriage
( X didn't happen still Y happened )

Option A is in line with the above reasoning. So why Option A is wrong ?

(A) Married couples in which both spouses follow the same sleeping and waking patterns also occasionally have arguments that can jeopardize the couple's marriage.

Is it because of word occasionally ?

Thanks

Even if we remove the word "occasionally," option A would still be wrong.

Here's a premise in the argument:

such couples share fewer activities with each other and have more violent arguments than do couples in a relationship in which both partners follow the same sleeping and waking patterns.

The point is X couples have more violent arguments than Y couples. From this, we make the conclusion.

The fact that Y couples also have violent arguments DOESN'T weaken the reasoning of the argument. We partly already expected these couples also to have some arguments (but fewer than X couples have).
User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

Can you please elaborate on how does "X causes Y" means X is sufficient for Y.

Are you telling A implies B is same as A causes B.

Because I was of the belief that contrapositive rule is not valid in A causes B statements as it do for A implies B statements. Hence the sufficiency condition.

E.g. ~B -> ~A is valid for "implies" relation but it may not be for relation using "causes": ~A -> ~B.

E.g. Smoking causes cancer is not equivalent to Smoking implies cancer. You can still smoke and get no cancer thus smoking is not sufficient for cancer.

Can you explain how in both cases event A is sufficient, where I am going wrong?
User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Good question.

Let me ask you a question first:

If I say "X causes Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't cause Y, would my statement still be correct?
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

Can you please elaborate on how does "X causes Y" means X is sufficient for Y.

Are you telling A implies B is same as A causes B.

Because I was of the belief that contrapositive rule is not valid in A causes B statements as it do for A implies B statements. Hence the sufficiency condition.

E.g. ~B -> ~A is valid for "implies" relation but it may not be for relation using "causes": ~A -> ~B.

E.g. Smoking causes cancer is not equivalent to Smoking implies cancer. You can still smoke and get no cancer thus smoking is not sufficient for cancer.

Can you explain how in both cases event A is sufficient, where I am going wrong?
User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

Yes, your statement would still be correct. Since X is is just one possibility for the occurrence of Y, not that X is the only cause for Y.

I think "X causes Y" means "X is a possibility for Y" not "X is sufficient for Y".

E.g. For possibility case: Smoking causes Cancer. Even If I don't smoke I can still get Cancer. Since smoking is just one way to get cancer. Not that smoking will always lead to cancer.

While in sufficiency case: If you are a man you are a human. So, whenever I see a man then it definitely means that man would be a human. Here being a man is sufficient to tell whether it is a human being or not.

Sorry, but I am not able to differentiate clearly on sufficiency vs possibility here. Can you please help?


ChiranjeevSingh
Good question.

Let me ask you a question first:

If I say "X causes Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't cause Y, would my statement still be correct?

User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
You're right that X is just one possible way to get to Y, not the only way. I was also not saying that.

I want you to reattempt my question:

If I say "X causes Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't cause Y, would my statement still be correct?

If you're still getting the same thoughts, consider the following:

If I say "X leads to Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't lead to Y, would my statement still be correct?

GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

Yes, your statement would still be correct. Since X is is just one possibility for the occurrence of Y, not that X is the only cause for Y.

I think "X causes Y" means "X is a possibility for Y" not "X is sufficient for Y".

E.g. For possibility case: Smoking causes Cancer. Even If I don't smoke I can still get Cancer. Since smoking is just one way to get cancer. Not that smoking will always lead to cancer.

While in sufficiency case: If you are a man you are a human. So, whenever I see a man then it definitely means that man would be a human. Here being a man is sufficient to tell whether it is a human being or not.

Sorry, but I am not able to differentiate clearly on sufficiency vs possibility here. Can you please help?



User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

Are you trying to imply that I am confusing between these two cases:

X happened but Y didn't happen or Y happened but X didn't WITH X and Y have any causal link at all.

If I know X causes Y and you give me a case X didn't cause Y then X didn't cause Y contradicts with the statement X causes Y. So the original statement will not be correct if I know the 2nd information.

But still unable to understand by knowing only one statement X causes Y how we can infer X is sufficient for Y.
ChiranjeevSingh
You're right that X is just one possible way to get to Y, not the only way. I was also not saying that.

I want you to reattempt my question:

If I say "X causes Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't cause Y, would my statement still be correct?

If you're still getting the same thoughts, consider the following:

If I say "X leads to Y" and you give me a case in which X didn't lead to Y, would my statement still be correct?


User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Great. So, we agree that "X causes Y" and "X didn't cause Y" contradict each other. Right?

If so, for "X causes Y" to be true, we cannot have a case in which "X didn't cause Y"

Thus, in every case, X should cause Y.

Thus, X is sufficient for Y.

Think about it. Have some back-and-forth with an AI tool. If you are still unsure, get back to me.
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

Are you trying to imply that I am confusing between these two cases:

X happened but Y didn't happen or Y happened but X didn't WITH X and Y have any causal link at all.

If I know X causes Y and you give me a case X didn't cause Y then X didn't cause Y contradicts with the statement X causes Y. So the original statement will not be correct if I know the 2nd information.

But still unable to understand by knowing only one statement X causes Y how we can infer X is sufficient for Y.

User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

Sorry, but AI tool (GPT) states expert's reply is not correct. I don't want to blindly beleive it but I do agree with it.

If X causes Y means X is sufficient for Y, then how is it different from X always causes Y or Whenever X happens, Y happens.

I still beleive X causes Y means X is just a possibility for Y, otherwise the negation of X causes Y wouldn't be X doesn't cause Y. While the negation of If X then Y is Even if X not Y.

Can you please explain where I or AI is going wrong, I really tried to think of my best ability?

ChiranjeevSingh
Great. So, we agree that "X causes Y" and "X didn't cause Y" contradict each other. Right?

If so, for "X causes Y" to be true, we cannot have a case in which "X didn't cause Y"

Thus, in every case, X should cause Y.

Thus, X is sufficient for Y.

Think about it. Have some back-and-forth with an AI tool. If you are still unsure, get back to me.

User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Sure. Let's go step by step.

Do you agree that "X causes Y" and "X didn't cause Y" contradict each other?
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

Sorry, but AI tool (GPT) states expert's reply is not correct. I don't want to blindly beleive it but I do agree with it.

If X causes Y means X is sufficient for Y, then how is it different from X always causes Y or Whenever X happens, Y happens.

I still beleive X causes Y means X is just a possibility for Y, otherwise the negation of X causes Y wouldn't be X doesn't cause Y. While the negation of If X then Y is Even if X not Y.

Can you please explain where I or AI is going wrong, I really tried to think of my best ability?


User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

I have gone through your article and related links you shared for this Topic: Correlation to Causation.

I do understand that X causes Y is a generic claim that's why the use of present tense. And X didn't cause Y is a specific or particular claim that's why the use of past tense.

Earlier when I agreed with this exact question, there I was implicitly reading your statement as "X doesn't cause Y" contradicts with "X causes Y". Which is true indeed just like how "A is true" contradicts with "A is false"

Now I see that “X didn’t cause Y” is actually talking about a particular past event, which does not necessarily contradict the generic claim “X causes Y.”

E.g. Smoking causes cancer. But now someone tells me "Smoking didn't cause cancer" (It means for a specific case it didn't happen but that doesn't mean it will never cause cancer hence it doesn't necessarily contradicts the main argument "X causes Y")

Also applicable in this e.g. "A was false" does not necessarily contradict with "A is true".

Now, am I am becoming more confused :dazed or more enlightened :angel: ?

ChiranjeevSingh
Sure. Let's go step by step.

Do you agree that "X causes Y" and "X didn't cause Y" contradict each other?

User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I appreciate your persistence.

And confusion is the step to clarity :)

Let's look at this statement: Indians are intelligent.

If you find an Indian who is not intelligent, will the above statement be true then?
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

I have gone through your article and related links you shared for this Topic: Correlation to Causation.

I do understand that X causes Y is a generic claim that's why the use of present tense. And X didn't cause Y is a specific or particular claim that's why the use of past tense.

Earlier when I agreed with this exact question, there I was implicitly reading your statement as "X doesn't cause Y" contradicts with "X causes Y". Which is true indeed just like how "A is true" contradicts with "A is false"

Now I see that “X didn’t cause Y” is actually talking about a particular past event, which does not necessarily contradict the generic claim “X causes Y.”

E.g. Smoking causes cancer. But now someone tells me "Smoking didn't cause cancer" (It means for a specific case it didn't happen but that doesn't mean it will never cause cancer hence it doesn't necessarily contradicts the main argument "X causes Y")

Also applicable in this e.g. "A was false" does not necessarily contradict with "A is true".

Now, am I am becoming more confused :dazed or more enlightened :angel: ?


User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

As a person who has gone through your article on Negation (Group vs Individuals). I am aware of the trap in this sentence, here "Indians are intelligent" implicitly means "All Indians are intelligent". So, if you find an "Indian who is not intelligent" then the above statement will become false.

ChiranjeevSingh
I appreciate your persistence.

And confusion is the step to clarity :)

Let's look at this statement: Indians are intelligent.

If you find an Indian who is not intelligent, will the above statement be true then?

User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Great. Now, what is the difference, if any, between the following two statements?

1. X causes Y
2. X generally causes Y.
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

As a person who has gone through your article on Negation (Group vs Individuals). I am aware of the trap in this sentence, here "Indians are intelligent" implicitly means "All Indians are intelligent". So, if you find an "Indian who is not intelligent" then the above statement will become false.


User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

I feel both are same, just that it becomes more easier to see in the statement "X generally causes Y" doesn't mean "X is sufficient for Y".
ChiranjeevSingh
Great. Now, what is the difference, if any, between the following two statements?

1. X causes Y
2. X generally causes Y.

User avatar
ChiranjeevSingh
Joined: 22 Oct 2012
Last visit: 24 Apr 2026
Posts: 427
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 161
Status:Private GMAT Tutor
Location: India
Concentration: Economics, Finance
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 1: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 2: 735 Q90 V85 DI85
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Expert
Expert reply
Schools: IIMA  (A)
GMAT Focus 3: 735 Q88 V87 DI84
GMAT 1: 780 Q51 V47
GRE 1: Q170 V168
Posts: 427
Kudos: 3,209
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Okay. Is there any difference between the following?

1. It rains on Monday.
2. It generally rains on Monday.
GMAT_KSD
ChiranjeevSingh

I feel both are same, just that it becomes more easier to see in the statement "X generally causes Y" doesn't mean "X is sufficient for Y".

User avatar
GMAT_KSD
Joined: 24 Sep 2023
Last visit: 23 Apr 2026
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 244
Posts: 16
Kudos: 1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
ChiranjeevSingh

Not atleast in terms of sufficiency. Neither "It rains on Monday" nor "It generally rains on Monday" mean "If it rains then thay day is Monday".


ChiranjeevSingh
Okay. Is there any difference between the following?

1. It rains on Monday.
2. It generally rains on Monday.

 1   2   
Moderators:
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
7391 posts
501 posts
358 posts