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Bunuel
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Isn't "if not most" a change in meaning? She expects "most of them" to agree, but if you add if not most, isn't it saying she doesn't expect most of them to agree?
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I think OA is C.

Do so refers to “she could not speak”, which is not what she did. The options left are b & c. In case of option b “would have agreed” tense is wrong so c is the right answer.

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daagh AjiteshArun How likely most is wrong and if not most is correct..Isn't "if not most" changing the meaning?
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As far I see, 'if not most' is the antithesis of 'likely most.' But this topic is from the 1000 series and there is no accountability for that series.
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Although Ms. Bakara had previously emphasized that she could not speak for other Black people, she ventured to do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would agree with her.

would + likely = always wron so C E out . . prefer if not most > likely most

OR would+have is not needed here as this is not conditional sentence . so B out . Between A and D the only difference is likely most vs if not most.

D is better and clear so D is correct .

(A) do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would agree

(B) speak on this one occasion since she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would have agreed

(C) so speak on this one occasion due to her firmly believing that many minority people, even most, would likely agree

(D) do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, if not most, would agree

(E) do so on this one occasion since she firmly believed many minority people, and even most, would likely agree
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Hi,
Between A and D, the only difference is 'likely most' & 'if not most'. We use 'likely' as an adverb. Like "He is likely to call you in the evening" or "She is more likely to help you than he is".
Can 'likely' be used appropriately before multifunctional words such as 'most'.
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Bunuel
Although Ms. Bakara had previously emphasized that she could not speak for other Black people, she ventured to do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would agree with her.


(A) do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would agree

(B) speak on this one occasion since she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most, would have agreed

(C) so speak on this one occasion due to her firmly believing that many minority people, even most, would likely agree

(D) do so on this one occasion because she firmly believed that many minority people, if not most, would agree

(E) do so on this one occasion since she firmly believed many minority people, and even most, would likely agree

Here we have three cause and effect conjunctions - since, because, due to.
- 'Due to' in option(C) should modify noun, which is not exactly happening in this case, so ditch (C)
- 'Since' is mostly used to define or denote time period. It focuses on the result unlike 'because' which focuses on reason; so here for the same reason ditch (B) and (E)

Now we are left with (A) and (D):
+ On comparing, "she firmly believed that many minority people, likely most,..." with "she firmly believed that many minority people, if not most,.." later one makes sense when read in context of the whole sentence and hence I choose (D) over (A).

Hence, Opt (D)
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I am not able to understand the difference between A & D- " likely most" Vs if not most". Can anyone please hence to understand ?
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