Among the employees of a certain company, 52 percent of the

Much faster: draw 4 quadrants
______________Male (52%) _____ Female (48%)
Married :__________70%____________50%
Not Married:_______30%____________50%

Therefore: the probability of picking one random person Not Married (he or she) is: 0,52 x 0,30 + 0,50 x 0,50 = 0,15 + 0,25 (approx.)
Solution: approx. 0,4 (answer B)

Another "stolen" question.

Original GMAT Prep question:

Discussed here: in-the-graduating-class-of-a-certain-college-48-percent-of-129382.html

All of his 1800 questions are "stolen" from OG, GMATPrep, Paper Tests etc.. but all are "GMAT-like" questions, that's why they are better.

I'm not sure if you've taken the GMAT yet, but I am really curious to know if the Real GMAT questions are "stolen" from GMAT Prep, OG etc.. or I'm guessing they are very similar. Is that true?

In my experience, no, that's not true at all. I mostly have experience only with the higher level questions on the real test, but I find on the real GMAT they find all kinds of inventive and unfamiliar ways to test the same basic concepts you've seen in the OG and GMATPrep. The questions are certainly not simple copies of OG questions with a few numbers changed. So to do well on the GMAT, you need a strong enough conceptual foundation that you can adapt to whatever new question setups you see on test day.

I find questions like the one in this thread to be of almost no value to test takers. You won't learn anything more by studying this question than you would learn by studying its GMATPrep equivalent, and of course you should be studying all of the official questions you can find. I certainly don't think this question is worth paying money for. Unfortunately, it seems to be an increasingly common practice in GMAT test prep circles - companies want to advertise that they have thousands of questions, but when the questions are essentially identical to what you find in the OG or GMATPrep, they really aren't worth very much.

Total Males = 52
Total Female = 48
Total = 100

Not married Male = 30% = 15.6
Not marries Female = 50% = 24
Total = 39.6

Probability = 39.6/100 = .396 = apprx .4

hence B

completely agree with Ian : it's like to do 3+2 with OG and 2+3 with a prep company book....... basically the same. after a while is difficult to improve

Inviato dal mio Nexus 4 con Tapatalk 2

I'll stay away from the whole stolen/not stolen debate, but I would like to add that modifying questions can be very helpful in thoroughly understanding concepts. I wouldn't say 3+2 and 2+3, because that's essentially the same question, just as changing 50% to 40% doesn't change anything in the method, only the calculations.

However, imagine if the information was the same, but the question asked for the probability of a married male, or an unmarried female. Or the probability of picking two people who weren't married, or picking two with at least one of the two being married. There are so many possible ways to modify the question that properly understanding the concepts is the only way to get them all. Changing one percentage for another doesn't add any value, but I believe that looking at the question from a different angle can help shore up common misconceptions and foster stronger understanding of core concepts.

Hope this helps!
-Ron

Lets assume that we have 1000 employees. Hence, 52% = 520 and 48% = 480. 30% of men not married => 156; 50% women not married => 240

\(\frac{156 + 240}{1000} = 0.396\) (the answer is B)

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