shrivastavarohit
Dude !!! If GMAT were an exam for math wizards only I would agree with your argument.
Since it is not, You need to use the presense of mind as well.
Can you please explain, considering you are correct what is the difference in Statement 1 and 2.
Assuming months can be ignored, it dosent matter if 19/20 or 20/19.
An an intelligent test taker it would be a waste of lot of energy and time to rewrite statement 1 in statement 2 with absolutely no change.
BEYOND ALL, Also consider this possibility April to May :
Could be 15 Apr - 15 May. If so, how would you know he revenue of accouting month from Apr to May at the end of APR?
The answer has nothing to do with math wizardry, in statement 2 we are given the ratio of revenues in April 20 / 19. 20 * (1 - 0.05) is always 19, hence the ratio is always 1.
I am unclear of what you mean when you say "presence of mind" as I am unsure what you mean by saying an "intelligent test taker would waste alot of time" as it took 42 seconds to answer this question.
On the last point, I will make the assumption that the months are equal meaning April means all of April and the same for May. If that assumption doesn't hold true, the answer for this question and any like it would be E as there would be no solution.
The two statements are different and not the same as you imply but they are both sufficient.
Instead of worrying about the metaphysical aspects of the GMAT, it would be helpful if someone could explain how my reasoning that statement 2 is sufficient is wrong. Preferably with an example of numbers where it doesn't work. However, judging from the responses given throughout this thread, which are all D except for one and the explanation for that one has been disproven, I do not expect an explanation justifying A.
Maybe someone smarter than me on these things (Bunuel or Walker?) can shine some light on this?
Thanks