AbhiJ
Bunuel can you attempt this one. Not entirely convinced of the solution. I may be missing something.
Solving for \(x\)and \(y\)in terms of \(a\) and \(b\) and then making\(x>y\) results in the following inequality
\((a+b)^2(a-b) < 0\)
Now \(a > b\) is NOT sufficient for this inequality because we can have \(5 > -5\) making \((a+b)^2(a-b) = 0\)
Actually you are missing out on an important point. You have ASSUMED that x>y and also, the fact IS that a>b. Thus, in your final expression which is :
\((a+b)^2(a-b) < 0\), all the terms are non negative, and it can never be negative. Thus, the assumption that x>y is wrong.
Another method: From F.S 1, we have
ax + by=10
ay + bx=12
Subtract both, and we get : \((a-b)x+y(b-a) = -2 \to (a-b)(x-y) =-2\). Now, given that a>b, i.e. a-b>0. Thus, \((x-y)<0 \to x<y.\) Sufficient.
From F.S 2, if you notice closely, the only difference between this and the previous fact statement is that in this case, we don't know if a>b or not. We are just given that \(\frac{a}{b}>1\). Depending upon the sign of b, we could end up with a>b OR a<b.
Thus, using the same equation which we got above, i.e. (a-b)(x-y) =-2, for a>b we will end up with x>y(just as above) and for a<b, we will have (a-b)<0. Thus, x-y will have to be positive in this case. Thus, Insufficient.
Hope this helps.