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Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co

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SC Revision: Before its independence in 1947 Britain ruled India as a  [#permalink]

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New post 04 Feb 2016, 13:55
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IMO (D)

Ruled as a colony is a better form than was a colony. Colony can also be a settlement/township..so ambiguity would be there with just colony.
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SC Revision: Before its independence in 1947 Britain ruled India as a  [#permalink]

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New post 08 Feb 2016, 05:54
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debbiem wrote:
IMO (D)

Ruled as a colony is a better form than was a colony. Colony can also be a settlement/township..so ambiguity would be there with just colony.


Hi debbiem,

I would say, using "rule" and "colony" together is in a way redudancy. When X rules Y, Y is a colony of X. One does not need to say rule as a colony. This usage is awkward.

The usage Y is a colony of X is quite common, and does not seem to make the sense ambiguous.
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Re: SC Revision: Before its independence in 1947 Britain ruled India as a  [#permalink]

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New post 14 Apr 2017, 21:22
As no expert has highlighted this, I would like to know, is the use of "which" in option D correct?

I believe we use "which" for things. That was the main reason I chose E with "who". Please clear this.
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Re: SC Revision: Before its independence in 1947 Britain ruled India as a  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Apr 2017, 15:36
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RMD007 wrote:
As no expert has highlighted this, I would like to know, is the use of "which" in option D correct?

I believe we use "which" for things. That was the main reason I chose E with "who". Please clear this.


In option D, "Britain" is a country - hence use of "which" is alright. D is wrong because of redundant use of "ruled" - a colony is always ruled by the colonizer.

In option E "British" refers to the people of Britain - hence "who" is alright.
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Re: Revision Project: Before its independence in 1947  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Apr 2017, 21:44
Hello expert, i got the answer but i have one query

In gmat questions, i have never seen usage of "had been", am i wrong in generalizing the concept that options with had been will be wrong.
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Re: Revision Project: Before its independence in 1947  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Apr 2017, 04:19
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Hello expert, i got the answer but i have one query

In gmat questions, i have never seen usage of "had been", am i wrong in generalizing the concept that options with had been will be wrong.


Yes, this generalization is wrong - "had been" is the past perfect of the verb "to be".
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Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 15 Sep 2017, 07:35

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION:



The original sentence begins with a modifier ("Before its independence") that clearly describes India, though the subject of the main clause is Britain. Moreover, "ruled India as a colony" is wordy and the verb "ruled" is in the simple past when it would be better in the past perfect (two past actions, one of which was earlier). Finally, "they" has no grammatical antecedent and "would" is not a proper tense here (the simple past is required).

(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.

(B) Britain should not be the recipient of the modifier "Before its independence."

(C) The pronoun "they" has no logical antecedent. Logically it probably refers to the British, but the British do not appear in the sentence. Also, the past perfect tense would have been preferable here (had been ruled) since the ruling occurred before the relinquishing of the power.

(D) The phrase "ruled as a colony by Britain" is awkward and unclear. The placement of the modifier "by Britain" makes it unclear that the ruling is being done by Britain.

(E) CORRECT. This correctly places India as the recipient of the opening modifier. The past perfect is utilized to indicate that different times in the past. Notice that the word "ruled" has been removed from this answer choice, however, this did not result in a change of meaning. To be a colony of the British is to be ruled by the British. The exclusion of the pronoun its in the beginning of the sentence (see answer choices A and C) is incidental. The sentence would have been correct with the pronoun its as well.
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co  [#permalink]

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New post 26 May 2019, 21:18
I read the explaination regarding choice D and Choice E. However I am still not clear. Below is my analysis of the choices.


(D) Before independence in 1947, India had been ruled as a colony by Britain, which relinquished power
I thought this answer is correct and the reason for the same is the modifer is used correctly and the pronoun which refers to the noun Britain ( And I thought this use of pronoun is correct here)
I am not able to understand what is wrong with the phrase India had been ruled as a colony by Britain. And I also read in the GMAT Sentence correction guide that passive construction is allowed. And to me this choice doesnot sound awkward or wordy I feel that it brings out the intended meaning clearly.


(E) Before independence in 1947, India had been a colony of the British, who relinquished power
Modifier used correctly.
who correctly refers to British ( who is used for the people)
I did not choose this option because I thought the meaning is compromised here. And I thought that India had been a colony of British is quite different from India had been ruled as a colony by British.
May be India is a colony of British.

I am not able to understand please guide.
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Re: Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a co   [#permalink] 26 May 2019, 21:18

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