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For most people, the left half of the brain controls

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Manager
Joined: 23 Jul 2008
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17 Nov 2008, 11:41
stallone wrote:
For most people, the left half of the brain controls linguistic capabilities, but some people
have their language centers in the right half. When a language center of the brain is
damaged, for example by a stroke, linguistic capabilities are impaired in some way.
Therefore, people who have suffered a serious stroke on the left side of the brain without
suffering any such impairment must have their language centers in the right half.
Which of the following is an assumption on which the reasoning in the argument above
depends?

A. No part of a person’s brain that is damaged by a stroke ever recovers.
B. Impairment of linguistic capabilities does not occur in people who have not
suffered any damage to any language center of the brain.
C. Strokes tend to impair linguistic capabilities more severely than does any other
cause of damage to language centers in the brain.
D. If there are language centers on the left side of the brain, any serious stroke
affecting that side of the brain damages at least one of them.
E. It is impossible to determine which side of the brain contains a person’s language
centers if the person has not suffered damage to either side of the brain.

i zero-ed B and D, finally picked B because i had never seen an if then in assumption answer choice. Grumpyoldman how would rate B.
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19 Nov 2008, 18:32
It's hard to keep up with this forum!

OK, answer choice B: This is actually an if-then statement as well. If we translate B into "if-then" wording, we get "If a person does NOT suffer any damage to any language centre in the brain, then his or her linguistic capabilities are NOT impaired". This is a negation of one part of the evidence (which means, incidentally, that it does NOT follow logically from that piece of evidence), but it is not the assumption that we need. As I discussed earlier, the assumption we need is: "If no language centres were damaged (by a serious stroke on the left side), then there ARE no language centres on the left side."

It is actually quite common for some or most of the answer choices in an assumption question to be "if-then" statements, even if they are not worded that way. It is fairly common to find that the correct assumption (or one of the assumptions) is an "if-then" statement. For example, the correct answer to Q. 32 on p. 476 of OG 11 is "Bicycle racers do not generate a strong demand for innovations that fall outside what is officially recognized as standard for the purpose of competition." Logically, this is actually an "if-then" statement, because it means: "If an innovation falls outside what is officially recognized as standard for the purpose of competition, then bicycle racers do not generate a strong demand for it."
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Grumpy

Kaplan Canada LSAT/GMAT/GRE teacher and tutor

Re: CR....   [#permalink] 19 Nov 2008, 18:32

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