Rickooreo wrote:
MartyTargetTestPrep I have two doubts in your explanation
MartyTargetTestPrep wrote:
1. So, let's substitute "was spoken" for "had ... done." We get "French was spoken ... just as the Russian aristocracy was spoken."
Shouldn't the construction be
French was spoken within the family, just as the Russian aristocracy
had once done
French was spoke within the family, just as the Russian aristocracy had once spoken (french).
You have eliminated the use of "had once" in your explanation and I feel, if we use it, the meaning stands, can you please correct me
The issue is that that sentence version compares two actions. It says basically the following:
French was spoken as the Russian aristocracy had done.
In essence, that version communicates that the Russian aristocracy had done as French did. In other words, they "had done" basically the same thing French did.
So, what did French do? French "was spoken."
So, in communicating that the Russian aristocracy "had done" as French did, the sentence communicates that what the Russian aristocracy "had done" is "was spoken," communicating that the Russian aristocracy "was spoken."
Quote:
Doubt 2 :
Now, let's look at the sentence created via the use of (A).
MartyTargetTestPrep wrote:
In many upper class Egyptian homes, French was spoken within the family, just as it had once been among the Russian aristocracy
I feel it should have been,
French was spoken within the family, just as french
it had once been among the Russian aristocracy.
french was spoke within the family is compared with French had once been among the Russian aristocracy ? Not sure what it means
Can you please correct me
That version means the following:
In the past, in Egyptian homes, French was spoken within the family, as, in the more distant past, French was spoken among Russians.
So, it communicates that what occurred in Egyptians homes in the past, French was spoken, was similar to what occurred in the more distance past among the Russians, French was spoken.