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In paragraph one author mentions, continued issuance of sumptuary law maintained dressing differences. We don't know what is the foundation of this system and it was no where discussed in the passage. so it would be wrong to infer sumptuary laws as foundation of this dressing system.
Rak06
Can someone pls explain Q1?

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In paragraph 1 author mentions, continued issuance of sumptuary law maintained dressing differences. We don't know what is the foundation of this system and it was no where discussed in the passage. so it would be wrong to infer sumptuary laws as foundation of this dressing system.
Rak06
Can someone pls explain Q1?

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What makes question 1 difficult is that E is actually a misrepresentation of what is being said in the passage. The following is mentioned: "this economic basis was buttressed by the continued issuance of sumptuary laws—laws regulating consumption—that codified dress differences." While the passage states that sumptuary laws strengthened/supported the economic basis of dress difference between the aristocrats and other people, it does not mention anywhere that these sumptuary laws provided the foundation. Actually, upon reading the whole passage, one could argue that these sumptuary laws were hardly effective in maintaining these differences, thus making it difficult to argue that sumptuary laws were somewhat of a foundation to the dress system.

When going through the passage, all other facts are directly or indirectly mentioned throughout the passage, except for E.

1. According to the passage, each of the following is true of some period in pre-Revolutionary France EXCEPT:


(A) Dress marked differences among members of the aristocracy.
(B) Luxury was considered to be a prerogative of birth, not means.
(C) Most common people could not afford luxurious dress.
(D) Styles in dress were slow to change.
(E) Sumptuary laws provided the foundation for the ancien régime's dress system.

Rak06
Can someone pls explain Q1?

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Can anyone explain question 2... I feel a should be right
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Can anyone please share the reasoning for Ques 4. I am stuck between answer options C & D.
How to rule out the wrong one here?
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the third paragraph suggests that the formal decree (which is the "anti-sumptuary law") was issued before France's Revolution. The paragraph states that "Thus did....mark the end of...."
ninja_in_progress
Can anyone please share the reasoning for Ques 4. I am stuck between answer options C & D.
How to rule out the wrong one here?
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well Option A is incorrect because the laws were not primarily about luxury goods being scarce but about maintaining the social distinctions.

The passage explains that in the ancien régime, sumptuary laws were implemented to maintain the clothing system by legally reinforcing who could wear luxury items like brocades, furs, lace, and gold trimmings.

PriyankaGmatIMD
Can anyone explain question 2... I feel a should be right
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Quote:
2. According to the passage, the primary intended function of the sumptuary laws passed in France in the ancien régime was to

(A) ensure that scarce luxury goods remained available for aristocrats
(B) reinforce the monetary constraints that kept the clothing system in place
(C) make it easy to identify those who could not afford luxuries
(D) discourage emulation among the various ranks within the aristocracy
(E) subordinate the prerogatives of birth and rank to the rule of law

(A) It adds the word scarce before luxury goods which isn't something that the passage indicates. But let's assume that because they are luxury goods, they might be scarce. Even then, the laws that were passed - it was to ensure that the others don't get to consume / use those luxury goods. So, instead of making sure that aristocrats can access those goods, its aim was more toward making sure that non-aristocrats don't get to use those goods. For instance, in football, sometimes the teams keep the ball only to themselves and ensure possession of the ball remains with them. While some teams do it to so that they can create more chances to attack, few teams do it to ensure that opponents don't get a chance to attack. Subtle difference.

(B) While this is not directly claimed in the passage anywhere, and one might move on to other options and see if there is better fit, however, if we reread the previous line in the passage, it states that common people being unable to afford luxury goods made sure that the system of dress codification worked well. And immediately after it, it says that: "to buttress this economic basis" laws were made. Buttress means to support or add on to something, and the economic basis means keeping luxury goods unaffordable for the common people. So, the laws were aimed to ensure that luxury goods remained expensive enough so that the common people cannot consume them.
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GMATNinja Could you help dissect this? Thank you!
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Question 1:
(A) Dress marked differences among members of the aristocracy.

It says in paragraph 2 that the aristocracy adopted new styles to differentiate themselves. However I considered this a trick answer

(B) Luxury was considered to be a prerogative of birth, not means.

This is the main idea of the first paragraph and why those sumptuary laws were in place

(C) Most common people could not afford luxurious dress.

This is true of the first paragraph in the ancient regime

(D) Styles in dress were slow to change.

This is true again of the first paragraph of the regime

(E) Sumptuary laws provided the foundation for the ancien régime's dress system.
They were supporting laws not the foundation because the regime dressed the way it did due to class / birth rank.

Question 2:
(A) ensure that scarce luxury goods remained available for aristocrats
There's never a question of items not being available or running out

(B) reinforce the monetary constraints that kept the clothing system in place
It is said that the laws were stated on top of the natural birth rank / order. this sentence here
Quote:
This economic basis was buttressed by the continued issuance of sumptuary laws
says that the reason for the laws is to support the system in place

(C) make it easy to identify those who could not afford luxuries
It already was easy without the laws to identify

(D) discourage emulation among the various ranks within the aristocracy
The laws were stated to separate the common class from the aristocracy not the aristocracy within

(E) subordinate the prerogatives of birth and rank to the rule of law
Honestly I found this kind of weirdly stated because it uses a reference to the rule of law as a purpose for the rule of law so didn't think this was the best answer.
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In question 4.
option D : Most of the middle class's attempts to emulate the aristocracy were clumsy and unconvincing.
The clumsy and unconvincing part is never mentioned. Although," middle class could increasingly afford luxury and, as part of its self-fashioning, emulated the aristocracy in manners and dress."
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­In the ancien régime—pre-Revolutionary France's rigidly hierarchical feudal order—the form, fabric, and color of a garment announced a person's position within that order. It did so systematically and transparently. Dress differences, between aristocrats and commoners and within the aristocracy, openly performed sociopolitical functions—self-affirmation for some, subordination for others. The fact that the common people generally could not afford luxurious dress largely maintained the system. This economic basis was buttressed by the continued issuance of sumptuary laws—laws regulating consumption—that codified dress differences. For the aristocracy these were protectionist measures ensuring their monopoly of luxury and thus luxury's differentiating function. Brocades, linings, furs, feathers, lace, gold and silver trimmings, and expensive dyes were by law the aristocracy's to wear, hence transparent markers of high status.

With feudalism's decline, the clothing system's economic basis eroded. A rising middle class could increasingly afford luxury and, as part of its self-fashioning, emulated the aristocracy in manners and dress. This appropriation of aristocratic styles (with aristocrats' consequent adopting of new styles to differentiate themselves), meant that dress less reliably indicated social position. In the seventeenth century, the aristocracy issued even more sumptuary laws to maintain the clothing system. During Louis XIV's reign (1643-1715), even such details as gold braid and buttons were minutely regulated. These measures failed to discourage the rising middle class. Originally a prerogative of birth and rank, luxury was increasingly claimed by anyone with the desire and means to buy it. As a Parisian attorney observed in 1745, "Today luxury is widespread, and because money rules, everything is topsy-turvy in Paris." The meanings of dress became (temporarily) opaque and fashions pace of change, formerly a slow evolution over centuries, accelerated dramatically. With this, modern fashion emerged as "something adopted temporarily, on the basis of collective but ephemeral preferences."

In 1793, a formal decree was issued that epitomized the rupture: "No person of either sex can force any citizen, male or female, to dress in a particular way..; everyone is free to wear the garment or garb suitable to his or her sex that he or she pleases." Thus did France's Revolution legally mark the end of the ancien régime's dress system.
1. According to the passage, each of the following is true of some period in pre-Revolutionary France EXCEPT:

(A) Dress marked differences among members of the aristocracy.
(B) Luxury was considered to be a prerogative of birth, not means.
(C) Most common people could not afford luxurious dress.
(D) Styles in dress were slow to change.
(E) Sumptuary laws provided the foundation for the ancien régime's dress system.



2. According to the passage, the primary intended function of the sumptuary laws passed in France in the ancien régime was to

(A) ensure that scarce luxury goods remained available for aristocrats
(B) reinforce the monetary constraints that kept the clothing system in place
(C) make it easy to identify those who could not afford luxuries
(D) discourage emulation among the various ranks within the aristocracy
(E) subordinate the prerogatives of birth and rank to the rule of law



3. The passage most likely mentions the attempt to regulate gold braid and buttons during Louis XIV's reign in order to provide evidence of

(A) the aristocracy's anxiety over the waning of their control over the clothing system
(B) an unprecedented attention to detail that made enforcing sumptuary laws impractical during his régime
(C) the popularity of these items among a rising middle class intent on emulating aristocratic style
(D) confusion over their meaning within an increasingly opaque clothing system
(E) their scarcity and the need to protect the aristocracy's access to them



4. Each of the following statements is supported by information in the passage EXCEPT:

(A) During the ancien régime, social roles and status were strongly regulated.
(B) Some members of France's rising middle class did not abide by the sumptuary laws.
(C) The anti-sumptuary legislation of the French Revolution was in part the culmination of a process that began much earlier.
(D) Most of the middle class's attempts to emulate the aristocracy were clumsy and unconvincing.
(E) The rise of the French middle class helped shift attitudes about the bases of luxury consumption, from hereditary entitlement and codified norms to economic means and individual desire.­

­

Discussed this passage and all its questions here:

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