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# Is 1/(a-b) < (b - a)? (1) a < b (2) 1 < abs(a-b

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Intern
Joined: 03 Feb 2009
Posts: 27
Schools: Duke, UNC, Emory, Ga Tech, Vanderbilt, Indiana, Wash U, Texas, Rollins
Is 1/(a-b) < (b - a)? (1) a < b (2) 1 < abs(a-b  [#permalink]

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03 Mar 2009, 12:03
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Is 1/(a-b) < (b - a)?

(1) a < b
(2) 1 < abs(a-b)

--== Message from GMAT Club Team ==--

This is not a quality discussion. It has been retired.

If you would like to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum. Thank you!

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Intern
Joined: 17 Feb 2008
Posts: 28

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03 Mar 2009, 12:34
1
I think its A.

As the first statement tells that LHS is less than the right hand side of the inequality under the rule a<b.
If you try it with numbers like:
a=2 & b=4

1/(2-4) < 4-2
-1/2 < 2
so its sufficient.

Under the second rule of 1<abs(a-b). if we use the values above:

if a=4 & b =2

1< abs(4-2) and thus get 1<2.

However if we use a=2 and b=4

1<abs (2-4) we still get 1 <2

So we cant really tell what the values of a & b are and whether they are negative or positive and thus the its not sufficient, as the abs value only tells the distant from the middle or or from 0.

So the Ans is A.

Hope that helps mate.

JF
Intern
Joined: 03 Feb 2009
Posts: 27
Schools: Duke, UNC, Emory, Ga Tech, Vanderbilt, Indiana, Wash U, Texas, Rollins

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03 Mar 2009, 13:04
Thanks. I see it. Well done.
SVP
Joined: 07 Nov 2007
Posts: 1728
Location: New York

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03 Mar 2009, 14:01
[quote="bmiller0731"]Is 1/(a-b) a-b0

1/(a-b) <0 clearly 1/(a-b)< (b-a) which is positive

A.

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Re: DS: Inequality &nbs [#permalink] 03 Mar 2009, 14:01
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