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Praetorian
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p/(p+q) > 0 if p is -ve then (p+q) is -ve
same holds good for q/(p+q)
I think it should be E.

If it is from kaplan then C.
because p/(p+q) > 0 means p >0 and same holds good for q.

so p+q > 0
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anandnk
p/(p+q) > 0 if p is -ve then (p+q) is -ve
same holds good for q/(p+q)
I think it should be E.

If it is from kaplan then C.
because p/(p+q) > 0 means p >0 and same holds good for q.

so p+q > 0


:?
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Lets do it by applying the basics.
If A>X and B>Z then ,A + B > X + Z
applyinh this we will get 1>0 so it is true, by using both.
Ans. is C. (A and B are ruled out correctly by others)
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Say P and q are both negative.

1) a negative over a negative is a greater than zero, true.
2) a negative over a negative is a greater than zero, true.


Say P and q are both positive

1) a positive over a positive is a greater than zero, true.
2) a positive over a positive is a greater than zero, true.

So, all of these equations can potentially be true whether both terms are positive or negative.

E.



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