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# M70-06

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Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 49251

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03 Sep 2018, 02:44
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Question Stats:

100% (00:33) correct 0% (00:00) wrong based on 2 sessions

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If $$p$$ is a positive integer ($$p ≠ 3, 4$$), which of the following expressions is equivalent to $$\frac{(p – 4)}{(p – 4)!}×\frac{(p – 3)!}{(p – 3)}$$ ?

A. $$p-2$$
B. $$p-3$$
C. $$p-4$$
D. $$p-5$$
E. $$p-6$$

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Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 49251

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03 Sep 2018, 02:44
Official Solution:

If $$p$$ is a positive integer ($$p ≠ 3, 4$$), which of the following expressions is equivalent to $$\frac{(p – 4)}{(p – 4)!}×\frac{(p – 3)!}{(p – 3)}$$ ?

A. $$p-2$$
B. $$p-3$$
C. $$p-4$$
D. $$p-5$$
E. $$p-6$$

We’ll go for ALTERNATIVE because it’s easiest to solve the question using numbers.

With an expression with variables, we can just pick any number. If we pick $$p = 5$$, it gives us $$\frac{1}{1!}×\frac{2!}{2} = 1 × 1 = 1$$. Let’s check the answer choices: (A) 3 – Nope! (B) 2 – No! (C) 1 – possible, let’s see the other answer choices. (D) 0 and (E) –1 are eliminated! Only (C) remains.

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Re M70-06 &nbs [#permalink] 03 Sep 2018, 02:44
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# M70-06

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