rite2deepti wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
udaymathapati wrote:
Mr Tolstoy bought 100 CDs at $x and sold them at $y. Did Mr Tolstoy profit from the deal?
1. 40% of x > 30% of y
2. 30% of x > 40% of y
Request bunuel to explain with detail. I am finding it difficult to decipher the explaination given belw.
stmt1> we get, x>0.75. Thus, x=0.8y>0.75y, which case y>x and Mr Tolstoy made a profit or x=2y >0.75y, in which case, he did not make profit. Thus we can't conclude whether he made a profit or not.
Question asks is \(100y>100x\)? or is \(y>x\)? or is \(\frac{y}{x}>1\)?
(1) \(0.4x>0.3y\) --> \(\frac{y}{x}<\frac{4}{3}\). So we can not be sure whether \(\frac{y}{x}>1\). Not sufficient.
(2) \(0.3x>0.4y\) --> \(\frac{y}{x}<\frac{3}{4}<1\). So the answer to the question "is \(\frac{y}{x}>1\)" is NO. Sufficient.
Answer: B.
Hope it's clear.
Can we plug in numbers ..I find that easy and less confusing ..If you can explain by plugging in numbers it will be helpful ...
Deepti ,
I would like to suggest u in this regard,
GMAT testmakers never expect the testtakers to plug in the #s and find out the answer. They prepare the questions in such a way that finding the answer for them by using the logic would be much more easier and effective than by plugging-in the #s.
TRY TO FIND THE TESTMAKER'S (QUESTION MAKER'S) LOGIC BEHIND THE QUESTION. ---As Bunuel did. This comes with the practice.
Anybody can correct me if i am wrong.
To the original question:
Question asks is x>y (loss) or y>x (Profit)
stmnt1: 4x>3y ==> x/y > 3/4 (Note that x and y must be +ve #s as these are selling/buying prices, and hence can safely be corssmultiplied)
==> hence x/y may/may not be > 1 (i.e 4/4) NOT SUFF.
stmnt2: 3x>4y ==> x/y > 4/3 ==> x/y shud be > 1 (i.e. 3/3) ==> x SHUD be > y ==> he got a "loss"
SUFF.
ANSWER "B".
Regards,
Murali.
Kudos.